Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,888 questions • 9,631 answers • 965,678 learners
I'll be right with you...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,888 questions • 9,631 answers • 965,678 learners
This was an excellent lesson - topical of course, but so easy to follow because of the perfect diction. Gracias. John
In this question from a quiz:
"El presidente ________ Gobierno tiene su residencia oficial en el Palacio de la Moncloa, en Madrid"
I was told that it should be del. However, in the lesson it says not to use contractions prior to proper nouns. Is this not a proper noun, despite the fact it is capitalized?
¡Qué tazón de café me he tomado esta mañana!I had a really big cup of coffee this morning!
Your answer to Marcos does not explain why a feminine version exists since, as you say, 'When we form a noun using the augmentative suffix -ón, the new word is always masculine, regardless of the gender of the originating noun. This is because nouns ending in -ón are generally masculine’.
Hi, why is it 'esto es' and not 'eso es', as it is translated as 'that is'?
Thank you,
Jan
One of the examples is:
Su actitud se volvió violenta de repente.
Is it correct to assume that the change is a lasting one, as with someone who got hit on the head with a shovel and after that was a violent person?
Compared to:
Su actitud se puso violenta de repente.
In this case, cowboys in a saloon in a Western movie insult someone and he stands up quickly and draws his gun?
Just want to double check that these differences are correct. Thanks.
I don't seem to be getting this lesson. I freely admit there are things above my head. When I just don't get it, I want to move on to other things (to stay motivated) hoping sometime in the future I'll get it then. Sadly, I am stuck on a subject that I won't even use much as a beginner. I'd like to skip it. Just my opinion. Thanks.
I'm a bit confused on when to use hacia vs. para for "toward" a destination? Two of the introductory examples in this section indicate para can be used for "to/toward". One of these examples is "Vamos para la playa porque hay una fiesta". Would it be incorrect to say "Vamos hacia la playa porque hay una fiesta"? My sense is that "hacia" means just going toward an end point or destination, without implying an actual arrival or end point. Is this the difference? Thanks for clarifying.
If the interrogative needs cuándo then: ¿Dice la pantalla cuándo aterriza el avión?
But for a non-question: La pantalla no dice cuando aterriza el avión.
yet the Kwiziq answer is: La pantalla no dice cuándo aterriza el avión.
HELP? por favor . . .
So, Juan was supplying both sides of the Revolution with his harina tortillas and also took them across the Rio Grande? I always wondered where Taco John's restaurants came from! Or was that Taco Bell's?
I see oenegés as the original transcript - but wouldn't it be O.N.G. like the acronym in English?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level