Spanish language Q&A Forum

Maybe there already is one, but a nice reference would be an explanation of the Spain-spanish pronunciations from a Latin American perspective. Because I am hearing the "th" sound in at least three different letters: c, g, and z. I sometimes hear "d" pronounced as "v".

Several letters (g, q, d, and even j) are often pronounced with a rough sound that has no equivalent letter sound, more like a middle eastern language sound.

Others (heard in the listening exercise following this one): T pronounced as d, d as q, and z as j. It's as if the european spanish mushes different letters into one sound, and many letters are pronounced differently depending upon the word.

I thought there was supposed to be an article for the things we like except for people or places. Example says "Le gusta comer pescado." Inspead of Le gusta comer el pescado.

I recently read "se queda embarazada", and I also found it on 20Minutos. However, apparently, being pregnant is not a permanent change. Is this considered a special case?

Hi, I was trying to make sure I translated something correctly and put the phrase “after school I go home” into a translator and it translated to “despues de la escuela me voy a casa” but the yo didn’t change to me when going other places. What caused the change?

Of all the paragraphs I've practiced in Kwiziq, this one has to have been the worst! I truly hope there will be no others like it. This was a TWO sentence paragraph! The second sentence went on and on for over 30 words! The voice inflections were quite misleading.  Horrible.

Pati Ecuamiga

Namely, adding a 'dr' to the stem before the regular endings.

I will leave ... Saldré

I will put ... Pondré

Is there a rule? Only for -er and -ir verbs?

The third example above is written "Los conciertos de la calle son ruidosísimos."

If so, it seems to violate the rule of taking the masculin form and replacing the "o" with "ísimo".

If not, is it a typo?

I'm having trouble understanding circumstances when I need to insert definite articles (i.e., los, las, etc.) when translating a phrase in English that does not include the articles. Below is an example of what I'm referring to from this translation exercise:

[English sentence] "However, it is important for governments, companies and people to work together ..."

[Kwiziq Spanish translation] "No obstante, es importante que los gobiernos, las empresas, y las personas trabajen juntos..."

Why was it necessary to insert the definite articles "los" and "las"? I notice that sometimes they are included in the Kwiziq translations, and sometimes they are not. Please explain the grammatical rules that govern use of definite articles in such circumstances.

Thank you,

Pati Ecuamiga

Thank you for adding this topic. I'd like to make 2 suggestions. 

First, is there a regional preference for using the two pairs of interchangeable words? My understanding is that in Latin America, people tend to use aca' and alla' whereas in Spain, people tend to use aqui' and alli'. Is this correct? 

Second, I am not sure whether the pronunciation of ahi' and alli' are the same. Since "h" is silent and "ll" has the "y" sound, I suppose they sound differently, but the sounds /i/ and /yi/ really do not have much noticeable difference. Is there a way to practice distinguishing the two or we can more or less treat them as sounding the same? Thank you!

Self grading has no importance to me. It is cumbersome to have to click an emoji just so I can continue with the test. Please make it optional.