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How do you do the upside down question mark?
Why is this written like this: Esta noche especial voy a ir a un cotillón
The english said: I am going to a party, NOT I am going to go to a party
Should it be : Voy a un cotillón
I’m the examples “that is an umbrella” and “I have an idea” where there is no clear gender established is it acceptable to use either un or una?
In this sentence, it seems that "be" is missing:Bear in mind that nada más can also used with a conjugated verb to express the same thing, but the use of the infinitive is slightly more common.
....can also BE used....
¡Saludos!
¡Hola! ¿Por qué usamos el verbo "toques" aquí? ¿No debería usar "toca" si estamos dando un consejo (tú afirmativo)? Supongo que esto es porque estamos dando un comando negativo, es decir "nunca toques" significa el mismo que "no toques". ¿Es correcto? Si es así, creo que una lección correspondiente debería estar vinculada a la oración (Forming the Spanish imperative of tú/ vosotros/vosotras (negative commands)).
Nos pusimos muraos (we pigged out out), i get that it’s an expression, but what does muraos literally translate into? Thanks a lot, Shirley.
To really make my day, illustrations would have been great. Do they exist?
When using "a tan solo de que", is the verb in the subordinate clause in the subjunctive?
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
How do you do the upside down question mark?
Why is this written like this: Esta noche especial voy a ir a un cotillón
The english said: I am going to a party, NOT I am going to go to a party
Should it be : Voy a un cotillón
I’m the examples “that is an umbrella” and “I have an idea” where there is no clear gender established is it acceptable to use either un or una?
In this sentence, it seems that "be" is missing:
Bear in mind that nada más can also used with a conjugated verb to express the same thing, but the use of the infinitive is slightly more common.
....can also BE used....
¡Saludos!
You said the answer was supé and not supe. I have been unable to find an example in your lesson that uses the accent mark. What am I missing here and where can I find an example of supe with the accent mark along with an explanation_
¡Hola! ¿Por qué usamos el verbo "toques" aquí? ¿No debería usar "toca" si estamos dando un consejo (tú afirmativo)? Supongo que esto es porque estamos dando un comando negativo, es decir "nunca toques" significa el mismo que "no toques". ¿Es correcto? Si es así, creo que una lección correspondiente debería estar vinculada a la oración (Forming the Spanish imperative of tú/ vosotros/vosotras (negative commands)).
Nos pusimos muraos (we pigged out out), i get that it’s an expression, but what does muraos literally translate into? Thanks a lot, Shirley.
To really make my day, illustrations would have been great. Do they exist?
When using "a tan solo de que", is the verb in the subordinate clause in the subjunctive?
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
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