Spanish language Q&A Forum

When I read into this, I found it a little confusing, we would actually say, he was meeting the lawyer tomorrow, to mean, He is meeting the lawyer tomorrow. 

I think we say it as it was a decision taken before the present or the future. So for once a literal translation would work?

Just want to confirm that the use of the subjunctive follows the normal pattern: when the thing is unknown, we use the subjunctive to indicate "whatever".

Te presto mi ropa; puedes ponerte lo que más te guste.

Thanks.

__________ mucho esta noche.

I answered: "He bebido"

I answered this because:

"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise." 

"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...

What am I failing to understand here?

There's also this part:

"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."

So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?

Thank you for adding this topic. I'd like to make 2 suggestions. 

First, is there a regional preference for using the two pairs of interchangeable words? My understanding is that in Latin America, people tend to use aca' and alla' whereas in Spain, people tend to use aqui' and alli'. Is this correct? 

Second, I am not sure whether the pronunciation of ahi' and alli' are the same. Since "h" is silent and "ll" has the "y" sound, I suppose they sound differently, but the sounds /i/ and /yi/ really do not have much noticeable difference. Is there a way to practice distinguishing the two or we can more or less treat them as sounding the same? Thank you!

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

How do native Spanish speakers typically handle the following situations:

Case 1:

You look up and see some birds (either los pájaros or las aves). Which are typical to say?

¡Mira! ¡Qué bonitos!

¡Mira! ¡Qué bonitas!

or would you be more specific? 

¡Mira! ¡Qué bonitos los pájaros!

¡Mira! ¡Qué bonitas las aves! 

Case 2:

Your friend is holding something in his/her hands. You can't see for sure but you are certain it is one of the following:

  a lizard (un largato) 

  a salamander (una salamandra)

  a toad (un sapo) 

  a frog (una rana) 

Or maybe you think of it simply as una cosa or un animalito or un bicho, un monstruo, una bestia, etc. 

What might you typically say:

¿Qué tienes? Tráemelo.

¿Qué tienes? Tráemela.

Thanks.

I answered “están aconsejando” but it was wrong - it notes that “estan aconsejando” is the correct answer…

But NOTHING in the lesson explains this

No se entra simplemente en Mordor.

I think my translation of Boromir's famous line is probably ok, but  whether any Spanish speakers talk like that might be a question.

Hola,

Thank you for this lesson. I understand that ningun is used before a noun: 

"No tengo ningun dinero para ir de compras hoy.";

"Ningun estudiante hizo la tarea."

My confusion is when concerning when to use "ningun" vs  "ninguno"? 

Saludos