Spanish language Q&A Forum

Your article says: "In most places El Pretérito Indefinido will be used with "nunca" and "siempre" and even with time expressions which have a connection to the present, such as: hoy, este mes, este año, esta noche, esta mañana, esta semana..."

On a quiz, I used the indefinido in a question with a "time expression which has a connection to the present" (i.e. "hoy") and got the question wrong-- it was corrected to the perfecto. 

Is there something wrong with what I did? Are the quizes looking for peninsular or latin american answers? 

“I am confused when " preterito " is appended to most of the tenses. This practice is not widely used in Spain or Latin countries. Why not use the tenses which are commonly used. I know that the preterite is used for past tense so when preterito perfecto subjuntivo is mentioned I expect that the past subjunctive is meant NOT the perfect subjunctive! I wonder whether other participants experience the same problem.“  In school, we never learned the English equivalents of these various subjunctive terms.  We didn’t really learn much about the subjunctive in English at all.  It was a whole new concept beginning to learn it in Spanish.  How is it taught to Spanish speaking children? Do they find it confusing?

Hola, 

Terese dice que " a mi no me gusta el frio y por eso prefiero viajar en otono o invierno a paises mas calidos". 

pues, si no se gusta el frio, porque viaja en otono o invierno?? pienso que hay una problema en la oracion. o hay una cosa que no yo entiendo:)

hasta luego!

>In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence, for example  "a mí, a tí, a ella", it is necessary to repeat the indirect object by using the "short" pronoun (me, te, le, nos, os, les) in the same sentence.

I think this should be reworded. That "and it is at the beginning of the sentence" makes it seem like you don't need the shrot pronoun if you put the "a + pronoun" elsewhere in the sentence. I know one of the examples and the little tip box later clarify this, but I still think rewording that paragraph would help. 

Missing word - Don't pay for those for him, or Don't buy those for him, maybe?

The question did not specify to use the tú or usted form, and in a later question, it did specify "tú."  So I typed "leyó", but was marked wrong. I had "leiste" until I saw "tú" specified later, so I changed it.  Either both should be right or it should be specified, to reduce frustration.  I can see if you were talking to a family member or close friend (in an obvious context), then it should be expected to be "tú." But this was quite ambiguous- you could have loaned a book to a friend or a colleague or boss.