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5,793 questions • 9,474 answers • 946,599 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,793 questions • 9,474 answers • 946,599 learners
Thank you for adding this topic. I'd like to make 2 suggestions.
First, is there a regional preference for using the two pairs of interchangeable words? My understanding is that in Latin America, people tend to use aca' and alla' whereas in Spain, people tend to use aqui' and alli'. Is this correct?
Second, I am not sure whether the pronunciation of ahi' and alli' are the same. Since "h" is silent and "ll" has the "y" sound, I suppose they sound differently, but the sounds /i/ and /yi/ really do not have much noticeable difference. Is there a way to practice distinguishing the two or we can more or less treat them as sounding the same? Thank you!
In the above question why is tù te marked wrong? I thought the use of pronouns was optional in Spanish.
John M
Silvia y Inma, you make a great team. I love this section of the website and wish it popped up twice a week!
Besos . . .
Garry
Just want to confirm that the use of the subjunctive follows the normal pattern: when the thing is unknown, we use the subjunctive to indicate "whatever".
Te presto mi ropa; puedes ponerte lo que más te guste.
Thanks.
"Tu coche no es muy nuevo aunque funcione/funciona estupendamente. (Your car is not very new although it works beautifully.)"
I chose the subjunctive "funcione" here because both the speaker and the listener would know about the car. But this was marked wrong. Why would the indicative be correct?
PS I just read your answer below that the speaker is simply making a declaration. In that case, how do we distinguish this from the case of the speaker stating shared information? It seems that both answers could be correct depending on how one interprets the speaker. This makes it hard to know which answer the system considers to be correct.
why do you add "me" as in me comería, or me compraría. Just for emphasis? Can one do away with the "me"?
In another lesson titled "Como, cuando, donde, quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish," it states that "Hablaré con ella cuando llegue a casa" translates to "I will speak to her whenever she arrives home." The term "whenever" implies uncertainty, suggesting that we do not know when she will arrive and indicating a future context. However, in this lesson, the sentence "Cuando vaya de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedaré en el hotel Olimpia" only implies a future context without conveying the sense of uncertainty as in the previous example ("whenever she arrives"). Therefore, I am curious: does "cuando" + present subjunctive mean "when" or "whenever"? Both examples refer to the future.
Can I use both por and con el ruido. Is there any difference between them?
Can I use mi pierna? In other lessor it was siad that it should ne la pierna. When can I use pronoun with body?
My answer: Comprend tanto carne que pescado. this was marked wrong. Why would it be tanta when carne is masculine?
Why is creer not the right verb for "she thought that" . Difference between pensar and creer please?
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