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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,752 questions • 9,383 answers • 930,510 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,752 questions • 9,383 answers • 930,510 learners
Why is estaba used in the sentence-
Después del baño, estaba muy calmado y feliz.
Why not era. Is it because describing feeling in the past?
The translation for this is All mayors deserve respect. As it is all mayors why isn't the spanish 'Todos Alcaldes' ? I would have thought todo alcalde was each mayor ?
Isn't it the same topic as "Gerundio"?
All the examples have nouns of the same gender/number on both ends of the sentence. What if it was "Maria es igual de alt_ que los gemelos"? Is it "alta" because Maria, or is "altos" because "los gemelos"?
Que son los deportes officiales en paraguay?
How to say to have something done with a sentence using the verb in the 3rd person plural
this is the other lesson that uses 3rd person plural verb conjugation.
I find this lesson very similar to the other and I cannot see any differences at all.
for example,
me han robado . this could be for this lesson of being impersonal but this can only be under the other lesson that something negative happened or something was done on me.
Are they actually the same thing?
please help me understand why we use tengo/tiene and not estoy-soy.
What about "llegar a ser" and "tranformarse"? I would like to know the correct usage of these. Thank you.
There’s too much new material in this lesson. I was only familiar with present subjunctive. To introduce two new subjunctive tenses here is a little much.
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