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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,181 learners
Hola!
I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around the purpose of doubling down on the indirect object usage in some of these examples:
"Ella le envió un regalo a Miguel.
She sent a present to Miguel."
In this example, why do you need the le if you already have Miguel. It reads to me literally as "she him sent a present to Miguel" and I suppose it feels like excessive and unnecessary additional language in an already clear sentence. Is it for emphasis? Por favor ayúdame a entender.
Hola Team Kwiziq,
Is it incorrect to place the No in a No...nunca construction before the pronoun? I notice that one can say "No comes chocolate nunca" which made me believe that the no is always at the beginning of the sentence.
However "No nostotros te mentiríamos nunca" was incorrect and so was "No él estuvo intersesado". I am guessing that no can be in front of a verb where the pronoun is implied (comes) but not in front of an explicit subject pronoun (tú comes). Is this correct? Can you elaborate?
why cant Estamos muy feliz be used?
why is ser being used to describe moods?
It is not intended, is it, that the second Example and Resource sentence above, "Vienen para solucionar el problema." is not translated into English?
'Padre'= cool, great, nice.
¡Ese es otro adjetivo padre que no conocía hasta que hoy!
¡Gracias Silvia! :))
Feliz Pascua a ti y a todo el equipo.
This topic requires a better explanation. There is a question where one person talks about the condition of another’s car. Both speaker and listener know the car’s condition. According to my reading of the lesson (perhaps mistaken), this means the subjunctive is used. So, I chose funcione but funciona was the correct choice. So, doubt or uncertainty does not seem to be the deciding factor when considering the use of the subjunctive after aunque. Thanks.
can you live in the Andes Mountains?
the last sentence is 'to spend our money' and the answer is 'para gaster nuestro dinero'.
but can we say 'para gastarnos el dinero.'? because from what I understand, Spanish doesn't like to use pronouns with body parts and possessions.
please correct me if I am wrong.
I'm reassured to see that even Mexican reporters sometimes conjugate their verbs incorrectly.
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