Spanish language Q&A Forum

When does the -o ending in the third person singular of the pretérito indefinido get a tilde en when does it not? P.e. "he spoke" = habló, but "she said" = dijo. Has it something to do with regular and irregular verbs?

In the example "A veces ________ que llevamos casados 20 años", why is simple olvido wrong? - when there was another question in another kwizz about forgetting a towel, and olvido was correct. How are we supposed to know if something is accidental or not? I must say that I find this lesson absolutely confusing and no matter what I put in the answer, it always seems to be wrong. 

(And I notice that it lists me as C1. I'm not C1, I am still struggling with B2. The Kwizbot doesn't understand the fluctuating nature of how people learn, forget, re-learn, get wrong again, and so on.)

Muchas gracias Silvia, Shui e Inma -

Hay otro hecho interesante [¿e importante?]:

Durante el mes de septiembre [y también en marzo], la latitud del sol [es decir su posición encima de la superficie de la Tierra] cambia más que en los otros meses [durante su viaje N>S, o S>N]. Por eso, las duraciones de luz del día están disminuendo muy perceptiblemente - por 27½ minutos durante esta semana [en Londres].

In the same way that galesa in the first example is equivalent to "Welsh," perhaps Esta torera es cordobesa is more equivalent to "This bullfighter (female) is Cordoban." 

Why is estaba used in the sentence-

Después del baño, estaba muy calmado y feliz. 

Why not era. Is it because describing feeling in the past? 

I don't understand the significance of !Qué bárbaro! in the second paragraph. It seems out of place in relation to the description of the dessert, but I'm sure I don't fully understand its meaning. According to my dictionary, it translates to "how barbaric" --- but why would it be characterized in that manner?