Spanish language Q&A Forum

Esto dice un bebida interesante de Paraguay. Que es un comida importante en Paraguay?

Would "no ha" be better thought of as "has not" instead of "didn't?" I don't know what the grammatical difference is between the two, or if one exists.

1:45.  ..que se ha ido a otros paises. 

Diria que sea se aspectual porque no describe un viaje, sino que ahora se les faltan. 

In the quiz the answer was con Uds but I chose what I knew wasn't the right answer ustedes because the Uds would be  capitalized in the middle of the sentence. I'm pretty sure that's not correct either. Anyway, I don't think we need these kind of trick questions. My thought is that is a poorly created test question. That said, I'm interested if one ever capitalizes Uds in the middle of a sentence or if the capitalized Uds is standard for the abbreviation of usted and I am wrong here.

Why is "lo mío" singular? Why not "los míos son" or "lo mío es"?

4 y 6 grados de alcohol shows as "degrees" of alcohol. Are "degrees" and "percent" interchangeable in Spanish? I've never seen it that way in English

Pitting your last two points against each other, should this be "Y email?" or "E email?"

When does the -o ending in the third person singular of the pretérito indefinido get a tilde en when does it not? P.e. "he spoke" = habló, but "she said" = dijo. Has it something to do with regular and irregular verbs?

It seems like it would be helpful if; when there is a statement and a response, that there would be two different speakers. This would give a conversational quality to the example. 

Based on this list, is it safe to say that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, and therefore,  -AR and -ER verbs do not have this possibility.  If so, it might be helpful to put a note at the top of this list that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, unlike  E>IE which can occur in -AR, -ER, and -IR verbs.