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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,075 questions • 9,950 answers • 1,034,675 learners
I'm confused by the title of this article: "personal "a" verbs". Isn't the issue whether the direct object is a person or not, rather than the verb used? In addition to the verbs mentioned, isn't the same true of all the verbs on https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/theme/830919 as well as necesitar, golpear, ... indeed any transitive verb?
Suppose we want to say that a price has gone up from 20 pesos to 30 pesos. Could we say:
El precio ha aumentado de 20 pesos a 30 pesos.
El precio ha aumentado desde 20 pesos hasta 30 pesos.
Would either or both these statements be correct?
Thanks.
the answer is haríamos
my query is this in the question - if you guys came we would have made ....
0r if you guys come we would make.....
is this an error or is my english understanding wrong?
many thanks
why did it say it was wrong in the first part
When I attempt to submit an answer to a question, I get this message: Warning: No message defined for data[Answer][body]
Quizá Miguel no aprobó.Miguel may not have passed.
No sé qué me pasa; quizás estoy un poco nervioso.I don't know what is wrong with me; I may be a bit nervous.
many thanks julie
Hola!
I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around the purpose of doubling down on the indirect object usage in some of these examples:
"Ella le envió un regalo a Miguel.
She sent a present to Miguel."
In this example, why do you need the le if you already have Miguel. It reads to me literally as "she him sent a present to Miguel" and I suppose it feels like excessive and unnecessary additional language in an already clear sentence. Is it for emphasis? Por favor ayúdame a entender.
In the quiz, the sentence was "When I go to Spain, I always go to the beach". - "___________ voy a Espana, siempre voy a la playa"
The answer is "Cuando" without an accent. In the lesson, it says that cuando without an accent is a relative adverb which introduces a depennt clause. In the above example, what is the dependent clause that "cuando" is introducing? I am not a gramarian, but it seems like both of the above clauses are independent. That may be incorrect, but could you please explain?
This topic requires a better explanation. There is a question where one person talks about the condition of another’s car. Both speaker and listener know the car’s condition. According to my reading of the lesson (perhaps mistaken), this means the subjunctive is used. So, I chose funcione but funciona was the correct choice. So, doubt or uncertainty does not seem to be the deciding factor when considering the use of the subjunctive after aunque. Thanks.
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