Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,747 questions • 9,371 answers • 928,191 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,747 questions • 9,371 answers • 928,191 learners
Is there a general rule in Spanish about when the definite article must be used and when it can be omitted? Eg why do azúcar, sodio, carbohidratos and lácteos need the definite article but not pescado, marisco, granos and huevos?
Hola , yo podría utilizar tambien Futuro Perfecto o Condicional Perfecto ?
Serían las siete cuando terminó por fin la reunión.- Habrán sido las siete cuando terminó por fin la reunión.
Tendríamos diez años en esa foto.
-Habríamos tenido diez años en esa foto.
Gracias
In the chart in the lesson, the meaning of "bueno" before the noun is listed as "simple/good" which implies that "buen hombre" could mean "simple man", which seems unlikely. Is this a typo ? Maybe the chart is meant to say that "bueno" before the noun means "simply good" ?
Thanks!
I assumed the answer would be 'cupieron' because 'the clothes' are plural, but the correct answer is 'cupe'. Can you tell me why?
Puedo decir, por ejemplo, este tipo del díalogo "Sabes, mucha gente me dijo que estas lecciones son aburridas, pero no lo creo.- Te aseguro que lo son"?
Si no, enséñame como sería correcto
Is this construction interchangeable with Al+infinitive or is there a nuance where I would choose one over the other?
Las chicas ________ el desfile de moda. The girls saw the fashion show. (HINT: Conjugate “ver” in El Pretérito Perfecto) without the hint, would vieron be more appropriate? i'm having a hard time differentiating, and would not think preterito perfecto was correct here. additionally, la costurera ha deshecho todos los puntos de la falda - why wouldn't this also just be deshizo? (preterite)? there isn't really anything connecting it to the present ?
I put this lesson in my notebook, it wont let me retake the quiz
Is there any reason to ever NOT use "que" after ojala? For example, is this construction ok: "Ojala que hubiera sabido que no tomes. No habria llevado vino." Or does that sound weird? Would it be better to say "Ojala hubiera sabido que no tomes..." (Also sorry I haven't used any of the appropriate accents here. I don't know how to find them on my keyboard!)
*I see one of the kwizq teachers responded that they are interchangeable ("ojala" and "ojala que"), but that using ojala without "que" is more common. Is that different in different countries? I feel like I've mostly heard people in Mexico say "ojala que," but I'm also only B1 and may have totally just not registered when they used ojala without "que!"
Any insight or advice appreciated!
Nos piden usar EN orden cuando traducimos esta frase:Muchas gracias por la información! Además, parece. ¿Qué es EN orden?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level