Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is this sentence: Yo he llegado pronto a trabajar esta tarde? Translated as “I arrived early to work this morning” and not “I have arrived early to work this morning”? The present perfect tense includes the use of have correct?

Not a question but idk why you would put a phrase like Force Majeure. How many people even know what that means in english let alone how to translate to spanish while at the B2 level.

How do we get lessons to clear from our listing.  I seem to do the lesson, get both test questions correct, but the lesson stays in my list.'

Thanks.

As other users have commented, "había" seems to be the past-tense equivalent of "hay".

"Había" is the past imperfect conjugation of haber, but the present tense conjugations of haber (he has ha hemos han) do not include "hay".

Is the word "hay" some other conjugation of "haber", or is not actually from the same root word?

Are por qué no/ mejor no only used with vamos? Or are these phrases more commonly used for all commands (not just ir)? 

For the road signs, are they third person singular for affirmative commands, and third person plural for negative commands? Or are both singular and plural third person used equally for either negative or affirmative commands?

This lesson tells when it uses the accento - but DOESN"T tell what it means/how to use with out the accento so can't see alternative

I want to ask if you can tell me the format for Letter Writing (Imperfecto/ Indefinido))

Let's forget about our problems and let's enjoy ourselves.

Olvidémonos de nuestros problemas y disfrutemos!

-monos ("s" dropped from mos before "nos" added) used for olvidar, 

but -mos (present subjunctive) used for disfrutar.  Rule?

Send me this but in english

I put this lesson in my notebook, it wont let me retake the quiz