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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,673 questions • 9,123 answers • 892,397 learners
As stated by one example, "Yo conocí a Susana hace 6 meses."
However, as stated by another, "Hablé con Clara hace 2 horas."
Why didn't the second example utilize "a"
Is it because "con" had already been used?
¡Buenas noches!
I'm trying to find out why "we don't have a fixed-price menu" is translated as "no tenemos menú" without the article ("un"?) and I can't find this out anywhere online! Would you be able to explain if there is a rule? Also, why is the title given as "reservar mesa" rather than "reservar una mesa"?
Many thanks!
Is there any reason to ever NOT use "que" after ojala? For example, is this construction ok: "Ojala que hubiera sabido que no tomes. No habria llevado vino." Or does that sound weird? Would it be better to say "Ojala hubiera sabido que no tomes..." (Also sorry I haven't used any of the appropriate accents here. I don't know how to find them on my keyboard!)
*I see one of the kwizq teachers responded that they are interchangeable ("ojala" and "ojala que"), but that using ojala without "que" is more common. Is that different in different countries? I feel like I've mostly heard people in Mexico say "ojala que," but I'm also only B1 and may have totally just not registered when they used ojala without "que!"
Any insight or advice appreciated!
Good morning,
Would you explain why it's "yo" here and not "mí", which I thought followed "para"?
¡Muchas gracias!
In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”
If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?
If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?
If someone hits you, I will intervene.
Si alguien te golpea, intervendré. o Si alguien te golpea, intervengo.
Which is more appropriate or "right"?
I assumed the answer would be 'cupieron' because 'the clothes' are plural, but the correct answer is 'cupe'. Can you tell me why?
Why is the imperfect, "tenía que" used instead of maybe the subjunctive "tenga que" or the conditional "tendría que"? In the story it's an action she hasn't yet done, no?
I don’t understand the use of quedarse in this sentence: “me quedé gratamente sorprendido”. It means I was pleasantly surprised. Why not use a form of estar in the preterite to express surprise? Unless this is a phrase used or has another meaning? I thought quedarse meant to stay. Thanks!
so maybe like this?
Practico el Español estudiando diariamente.
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