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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,820 questions • 9,536 answers • 953,583 learners
la de fotos que
The lesson states that if the subject is the same in both clauses you would omit que and use the infinitive in the second clause. Why is the subjunctive and not the infinitive used in the following example?
Nosotros preferiríamos que fuésemos al restaurante del centro.
We'd prefer if we all went to the restaurant in the centre.The answer given is ....a ella le terminará / acabará cansando
Would it be possible to say ..... a ella le terminará / acabará por cansar ?
Gracias
This sentence was marked as incorrect:
Cuando ella abra sus regalos en navidad a menudo tiene perfume.
The english translation was that often when she opens presents she gets perfume. Doesn't that denote possibility in the future and so it should be subjunctive?
Why is "of the mountains" not translated as "del montañas"?
Why is ‘has been …ing’ sometimes el Pretérito perfecto progresivo and other times a perífrasis verbal? eg:
Carlos lleva trabajando en ese colegio dos años.
Carlos has been working in that school for two years.
Laura ha estado viendo a su novio a escondidas.Laura has been seeing her boyfriend secretly.
Hola. Could you please explain why, in the following question, "todo aquel que" is a wrong answer?
________ vinieron el año pasado han vuelto este año.All those who came last year returned this year.(HINT: It refers to people in general both male and female)
What, if any, are the circumstances in which "si" introduces a clause that is followed by the indicative mode of a verb, rather than the subjunctive mode?
Buenas días
I understand Afectar is a transitive verb, which requires a direct object (without a preposition).
I saw these sentences:
La nueva ley no afecta al pequeño empresario.
La falta de oxígeno afecta al cerebro.
I'm curious to know why these two sentences use a preposition "a".
Muchas gracias
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