Spanish language Q&A Forum

here it says ¨Nosotros no deberíamos haberlo escuchado.¨ Should it be  Nosotros no deberíamos haberle escuchado? Le instead of Lo?

Hola hola!

I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence

She has made many sacrifices for her children.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.

There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible. 

However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".

She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos 

Three questions:

1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?

2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?

3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?

If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.

Your thoughts would be much appreciated.

I feel trying to explain the por and para  debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated   :) 

I have more questions though  ;)

This got me thinking about the  "for the benefit of":

He did it for the benefit of the company.

Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.

This could also be written in English as:

He did it for the company.

Lo hizo por la empresa.

I have two more question:

4) Are the following two sentences correct?

i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.

ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.

And, finally...

5) Do they have the same meaning?

I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.

Many thanks,

Ryan

If the following is true:

Bear in mind that used as adjectives, the hundreds must agree with the noun they accompany: 

Había veinte mil trescientas personas en el concierto.

There were twenty thousand three hundred people at the concert.

Then why is the following the opposite?

Ciento is invariable and doesn't have to agree with the noun it accompanies, for example:

Ciento treinta y cinco mil casas

One hundred and thirty-five thousand houses

First off, a minor suggestion wrt this lesson to break the ice: ;)

When you are talking about the position of 'se', you are in fact referring to the position of BOTH 'se' and a corresponding direct object pronoun. You might want to note this in the explanations somewhere.

Now, my real question:

With a participle, does the combo of se & direct object pronoun HAVE to be attached at the end, or this is just an option? "Se la estamos decorando" and "Estamos decorandosela" are both grammatically correct and semantically equivalent, right? Or are we allowed to say "Se la estamos decorando" only because we have two verbs next to each other?

PS

I agree with the other poster who pointed out that these agglutination rules totally warrant a separate lesson.

Why is QUERER in the subjunctive in the following sentence?    El hecho de que yo 

Hola. How do express the difference between "The students must not use a calculator" (in the examples), and "The students DON"T HAVE TO use a calculator." which has a very different meaning. Thank you!