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6,078 questions • 9,942 answers • 1,032,697 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,078 questions • 9,942 answers • 1,032,697 learners
When is de used after faltar?
I've read it's mostly a formal construction?
"Yo visité unos cuarentas países cuando era joven" (taken from a test, correct answer), pero "unos ochenta minutos".
I would have expected that "unos cuarenta países" is correct. Why isn't it?
In the exercise the phrase 'Haciendo la compra a mis mayores' is used. I would have expected 'para mis mayores'. Is the use of 'a' instead a common Spanish usage?
Are por qué no/ mejor no only used with vamos? Or are these phrases more commonly used for all commands (not just ir)?
For the road signs, are they third person singular for affirmative commands, and third person plural for negative commands? Or are both singular and plural third person used equally for either negative or affirmative commands?
You should just ask a straight up question and not try to fool us.
Hola! Necesito un poco de ayuda con una frase. No entiendo porque en esta frases ''A continuación, agregue tomates triturados, alcaparras, aceitunas, una hoja de laurel y el bacalao desmenuzado a la sartén'' decimos ''a la sartén'' en lugar de ''en la sartén''. Gracias! :-)
In a previous question, mover was used in a present tense (Ella mueve...). However, in this quiz, mover was used in a reflexive tense (El perro se mueve). How do we know when to use or not use the reflexive tense?
I notice that you consider as correct all answers that are theoretically correct from a grammatical perspective, even if they are not idiomatic and it is highly unlikely that a Spanish speaker would use the expression. Example: “No deberías nunca salir con ella.” Or am I missing something?
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