Spanish language Q&A Forum

Si quiero enviar a mi hijo a mi hermana, sí puedo decirle a mi mujer "Voy a enviarselo" pero no puedo decirle a mi hijo "Voy a enviarlete". Ambas oraciones son de forma verbo+enclítico de OI+enclítico de OD. ¿Qué hace que una sea correcta y la otra no lo sea? (Intento que se=hermana, lo=hijo, le=hermana, te=hijo.)

Una vez alcanzado su tamaño máximo, la larva se prepara para.....

Should this be una vez alcanzada as it refers to the feminine noun larva ?

Gracias

Would it be fair to say that tan is an adjective and tanta (o,as,os) is an adverb?

I had a really big cup of coffee this morning!

Your answer to Marcos does not explain why a feminine version exists since, as you say, 'When we form a noun using the augmentative suffix -ón, the new word is always masculine, regardless of the gender of the originating noun. This is because nouns ending in -ón are generally masculine’.

Note that in El Futuro Simple, only the 3rd person form habrá is ever used on its own and it means there will be.

I don't understand the meaning of this statement. Can you explain and/or give an example?

I am currently taking lessons from a tutor from Latin American who told me that in describing past experiences you would specifically use the past perfecto-He viajado en Mexica instead of the preterito. You contradict this. I wonder if this means you can actually use either and it's just a preference.

mnemonic.

Thank you, Kim

First off, a minor suggestion wrt this lesson to break the ice: ;)

When you are talking about the position of 'se', you are in fact referring to the position of BOTH 'se' and a corresponding direct object pronoun. You might want to note this in the explanations somewhere.

Now, my real question:

With a participle, does the combo of se & direct object pronoun HAVE to be attached at the end, or this is just an option? "Se la estamos decorando" and "Estamos decorandosela" are both grammatically correct and semantically equivalent, right? Or are we allowed to say "Se la estamos decorando" only because we have two verbs next to each other?

PS

I agree with the other poster who pointed out that these agglutination rules totally warrant a separate lesson.

What if I want to use querer in el preterito indefinido, but I don't want it to be interpreted as tried or refused?  Por ejemplo:

Yesterday, I wanted apples, but today I don't.

The action is complete, it requires the preterito indefinido, but I don't want to interpret the sentence as: Yesterday, I tried apples, but today I don't.

'Tis a conundrum for me.

Can a demonstrative adjective such as "este" for example, ever be used alone to signify a person or thing?

Por ejemplo:

Ana irá a la escuela con Pedro con la condición que ESTE lleve sus libros.