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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,860 questions • 9,590 answers • 959,897 learners
The lesson states that if the subject is the same in both clauses you would omit que and use the infinitive in the second clause. Why is the subjunctive and not the infinitive used in the following example?
Nosotros preferiríamos que fuésemos al restaurante del centro.
We'd prefer if we all went to the restaurant in the centre.Can you add Chao or Ciao for Good bye?
Buenas días
I understand Afectar is a transitive verb, which requires a direct object (without a preposition).
I saw these sentences:
La nueva ley no afecta al pequeño empresario.
La falta de oxígeno afecta al cerebro.
I'm curious to know why these two sentences use a preposition "a".
Muchas gracias
This sentence was marked as incorrect:
Cuando ella abra sus regalos en navidad a menudo tiene perfume.
The english translation was that often when she opens presents she gets perfume. Doesn't that denote possibility in the future and so it should be subjunctive?
The last subsection, Difference between todo/-a and cada, explains something entirely different.
I'm curious what the content of the missing chapter should be.
Hola. How do express the difference between "The students must not use a calculator" (in the examples), and "The students DON"T HAVE TO use a calculator." which has a very different meaning. Thank you!
The answer given is ....a ella le terminará / acabará cansando
Would it be possible to say ..... a ella le terminará / acabará por cansar ?
Gracias
Why is ‘has been …ing’ sometimes el Pretérito perfecto progresivo and other times a perífrasis verbal? eg:
Carlos lleva trabajando en ese colegio dos años.
Carlos has been working in that school for two years.
Laura ha estado viendo a su novio a escondidas.Laura has been seeing her boyfriend secretly.
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