por el bien de Hola hola!
I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence
She has made many sacrifices for her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible.
However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".
She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos
Three questions:
1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?
2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?
3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?
If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
Your thoughts would be much appreciated.
I feel trying to explain the por and para debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated :)
I have more questions though ;)
This got me thinking about the "for the benefit of":
He did it for the benefit of the company.
Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
This could also be written in English as:
He did it for the company.
Lo hizo por la empresa.
I have two more question:
4) Are the following two sentences correct?
i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.
And, finally...
5) Do they have the same meaning?
I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.
Many thanks,
Ryan
This lesson is a little confusing because under "Examples and Resources", el Preterito Perfecto is shown, after being told above that el Preterito Indefinido is preferred in Latam.
I saw this in an article on the BBC about direct and indirect object pronouns.
Escuchamos al cantante.
Le escuchamos.
Is that corrrct? I don’t get why we'd use the indirect object pronoun here. What is the direct object in this case?
This same issue was asked 5 years ago, and a new specific lesson would be helpful. (more than the current article on neutral lo)
Here is what I asked ChatGPT
______________________
tell me more about the use of "lo" in "lo suficiente" and "lo habitual", with grammar explanation and more examples of both
ChatGPT said:
The word "lo" in phrases like "lo suficiente" and "lo habitual" serves as a neutral article that turns adjectives, adverbs, or phrases into abstract nouns. This structure is often used to express qualities or degrees of something in a general, impersonal way.
Explanation of "lo" in these phrases:
Lo suficiente: Here, "lo" makes the adjective "suficiente" (sufficient) into a concept or a general idea. Instead of referring to something specific, "lo suficiente" means "enough" in a more abstract way, as in "the sufficient amount."
Example: No hemos hecho lo suficiente para resolver el problema.
(We haven't done enough to solve the problem.)
Lo habitual: Similarly, "lo" turns the adjective "habitual" (usual) into an abstract noun, referring to "what is usual" or "the usual thing."
Example: Llegó tarde, como lo habitual.
(He arrived late, as usual.)
I am a little confused with terminology. Are Preterite Indefinido and Preterite Perfecto the same thing? As others have highlighted, I am confused with the past perfect and preterite perfect.
Using esquiar as an example: I skied = Yo esquié; I have skied = He esquiado; I used to ski = Yo esquiaba; I have been skiing = Yo estaba esquiado. Am I wrong with these examples?
I use the app SpanishDict to help me check myself on certain concepts, especially on conjugations. For this concept, the gerund, the app uses past and present participles. Frankly, I did not receive a whole hell of a lot of instruction when it came to the difference between a participle and a gerund when I was younger but hey, I turned out ok! I have gotten the gist but the two things don't do the same thing in Spanish as they do in English. I asked a Spanish professor friend of mine about this and he said one of them (I can't remember which) was the gerund and the other is the participle. Is he correct? I got a questions wrong because I typed one form but it was actually the other. Also, is SpanishDict throwing me off?
According to Kwiziq the correct answer is "Debe de estar tomando café con sus amigas." Or are we supposed to understand the difference from the question and the answer?
There has to be a way to make this stuff stick, and not make me fall asleep in the process. What can I do? I've my final on Monday so I need any help I can get.
here it says ¨Nosotros no deberíamos haberlo escuchado.¨ Should it be Nosotros no deberíamos haberle escuchado? Le instead of Lo?
Why isn't this "Pónganselo aquí en esta habitción para nosotros, por favor."?
After all, the reflexive pronoun for the third person plural imperative of poner is se.
Hola hola!
I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence
She has made many sacrifices for her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible.
However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".
She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos
Three questions:
1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?
2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?
3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?
If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
Your thoughts would be much appreciated.
I feel trying to explain the por and para debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated :)
I have more questions though ;)
This got me thinking about the "for the benefit of":
He did it for the benefit of the company.
Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
This could also be written in English as:
He did it for the company.
Lo hizo por la empresa.
I have two more question:
4) Are the following two sentences correct?
i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.
And, finally...
5) Do they have the same meaning?
I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.
Many thanks,
Ryan
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