Spanish language Q&A Forum

First off, a minor suggestion wrt this lesson to break the ice: ;)

When you are talking about the position of 'se', you are in fact referring to the position of BOTH 'se' and a corresponding direct object pronoun. You might want to note this in the explanations somewhere.

Now, my real question:

With a participle, does the combo of se & direct object pronoun HAVE to be attached at the end, or this is just an option? "Se la estamos decorando" and "Estamos decorandosela" are both grammatically correct and semantically equivalent, right? Or are we allowed to say "Se la estamos decorando" only because we have two verbs next to each other?

PS

I agree with the other poster who pointed out that these agglutination rules totally warrant a separate lesson.

I have a question. 

Ojalá llegaran a tiempo a la estación para coger el tren que sale esta noche a las diez. (clearly referring to the future)

Here llegaran is subjunctive because of Ojala, but why is it sale (preterite) instead of saldre (future)?

Por favor ayudarme! :)

In a previous question, mover was used in a present tense (Ella mueve...). However, in this quiz, mover was used in a reflexive tense (El perro se mueve). How do we know when to use or not use the reflexive tense? 

Buenas días 

I understand Afectar is a transitive verb, which requires a direct object (without a preposition).

I saw these sentences:

La nueva ley no afecta al pequeño empresario.

La falta de oxígeno afecta al cerebro.

I'm curious to know why these two sentences use a preposition "a".

Muchas gracias

Why isn't this "Pónganselo aquí en esta habitción para nosotros, por favor."?

After all, the reflexive pronoun for the third person plural imperative of poner is se.

A cerca de: "Muy de and mucho de are interchangeable."

¿Tienen sentido las oraciones:

"Lamentablemente, soy mucho de levantarme temprano, aunque no soy muy de levantarme temprano."

y

"Lamentablemente, soy muy de levantarme temprano, aunque no soy mucho de levantarme temprano."?

En la primera me veo obligado a hacer algo, en la segunda a no lo hacer.

Why is "of the mountains" not translated as "del montañas"?

customer: quiero un café.

me: qué tamaño?

customer: pequeño por favor.

(the coffee shop in question has creative names for its sizes, so I often hold up a cup to clarify. :p)

me, holding up a small cup: cómo esto?

my understanding is that since the phrase "like this?" doesn't contain a noun after "this," then "esto" should be used. but technically we've been talking about "el tamaño," so is "este" correct instead? I've never been able to find something explain this exact scenario. 😅 

I am a little confused with terminology. Are Preterite Indefinido and Preterite Perfecto the same thing? As others have highlighted, I am confused with the past perfect and preterite perfect. 

Using esquiar as an example: I skied = Yo esquié; I have skied =  He esquiado; I used to ski = Yo esquiaba; I have been skiing = Yo estaba esquiado. Am I wrong with these examples?