Spanish language Q&A Forum

The question is:

Qué ________ por ese chico?What do you feel for that guy?

The answer given was sientes. However for me a possible answer to the question could be "I feel happy for him" which translates (hopefully) into Me siento feliz para él. So should the answer to your question not the reflexive "te sientes"

If I understand this right, this conditional tense can be used both for what was possible/probable in the past as well as for what could be/would be for the future?

I am used to seeing this tense in sentences such as

¿Podría llamarme mañana?

Could you call me tomorrow?/ Would you be able to call me tomorrow?

Será mejor que aparques lejos del centro.

It'd be better if you park far from the town centre. [you=tú]

Será - it will be or Sería - it would be

many thanks in advance

Hello:

in the exercise at: https://spanish.kwiziq.com/my-languages/spanish/exercises/judge/314/481235?response=57969&page=8

sentence: My mother uses her mobile phone to make calls and send texts 

Spanish: Mi madre usa el teléfono móvil para hacer llamadas o mandar mensajes.

The exercise says: "and", but the translation is: "o" 

i.e.: and send texts.

Kwizbot: o enviar mensajes. 

You: y enviar texto

Why is the translation "o" 9meaning "or" 0 instead of "y" meaning and as per the text?

Is there an error here, if so what lesson would answer this?

Thank you, Nicole

I had wondered whether Spanish 'hay' and French 'il y a' were derived the same way - a combination of third person singular from the verb 'to have' ('ha' and 'a') and 'y'. 

Is that completely wrong?

Thanks

Tom

Could I suggest adding a link to the aforementioned lesson so that that it's a little easier to see them difference between must have and should have? 

I want you to help me with simple way of understanding Spanish preterite please

Are these adverbial clauses interchangeable?

I can say "I like white wine" and also "I prefer white wine".  Is it the same in Spanish?  - I know there's a difference (i.e. comparison vs general) and wondering how similar it is to the English usage (which can be subtle at times).

A question in a quiz asked No es bueno beber ___________ alcohol. The answer was tanto but I chose demasiado. don't they both essentially mean the same thing? Or is there a distinction in Spanish? Thanks