Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,991 questions • 9,794 answers • 1,008,043 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,991 questions • 9,794 answers • 1,008,043 learners
please, help to understand why when I am using formal question
tiene un boligrafo is correct but
tiene usted un boligrafo marked as incorrect
¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?
Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:
In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?
what does afueras de la ciudad mean?
Why is the answer to " When she opens her present, she often gets perfume.
Why is the answer "abre" and not " abra"?
Is it because despierta is being used as an adjective here? Thank you
In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.
Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?
Thanks in advance for your explanation.
Why are numbers written with the feminine article when telling time "es la una y media", but written with the masculine article when writing the date, "mi cumpleaños es el uno/primero de enero"?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level