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5,787 questions • 9,465 answers • 945,333 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,787 questions • 9,465 answers • 945,333 learners
I had wondered whether Spanish 'hay' and French 'il y a' were derived the same way - a combination of third person singular from the verb 'to have' ('ha' and 'a') and 'y'.
Is that completely wrong?
Thanks
Tom
All the rent includes the bills.
Si viniérais, os ________ una paella riquísima. If you guys came, we would make a delicious paella for you.HINT: Using the "nosotros" form, conjugate "hacer" in El Condicional Simple
Because the first clause is in the past, wouldn't the second be in the contitional perfect?
Si viniérais, os habríamos hecho una paella?
In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.
Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?
Thanks in advance for your explanation.
I understand the use of 'para' in these sentences:
¿Quieres algo para comer?
Tengo algo que contarte
Can you help?¿Necesitaba algo para escribir?
But I don't understand the use of 'que' in the following:
If I am 70 and my neighbour is 50, why can´t I use tú instead of usted?
Hello,
I would like to know that in sentences like' Nosotros estamos en Uruguay esta semana' is it essential to write the Nosotros ? Wouldn't starting with estamos itself indicate 'We are'?.Similarly for the other sentence Vosotros estaís aburridos.....the conjugated verb form itself indicates that it is referring to vosotros. Please clarify.
Thanks
Alka
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