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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,882 questions • 9,619 answers • 963,985 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,882 questions • 9,619 answers • 963,985 learners
In the quiz asking for “half a sandwich”, I put “la mitad de un bocadillo” instead of “medio bocadillo” and was marked incorrect.
Is my answer in fact incorrect or just not what the answer was looking for? When we say “half a sandwich” in English, my understanding is that it is really shorthand for “half (of) a sandwich” and so I thought either “la mitad de” or “medio” would be correct - perhaps that is not true in Spanish?
Thanks in advance for your explanation.
Re: Sentence above:
No, no me gusta la paella.No, I do not like paella.
In the lesson above, I was surprised to hear how the word "paella" was pronounced. I had never heard that pronunciation. My question is, are the letters "ae" considered a diphthong, and if so, what would be its pronunciation?
Thank you and wishing you a great day!
Nicole
(Sorry, this is not really a question, but a hopefully helpful comment.)
Colloquially in English we often use the future tense to express present probabilities or predictions, just like the Spanish. E.g. We could say "I'm not sure where John is, but he'll be practising his Spanish I should think." Or "Do you think Fred has arrived home yet? Oh, he'll be relaxing with his feet up by now."
Why is the answer to " When she opens her present, she often gets perfume.
Why is the answer "abre" and not " abra"?
I learned naranja as the fruit and anaranjado/a as the color. Obviously language can be used differently throughout the Spanish-speaking communities! Is that the case here?
foggy and sunny both are adjectives, the why is it hay niebla and esta soleado?
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