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5,873 questions • 9,604 answers • 961,282 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,873 questions • 9,604 answers • 961,282 learners
In the examples of "¿Quién prepara la fiesta a Sofía?" and "Nosotros les preparamos la cena a nuestros invitados."
Why use 'a' instead of 'para' (for) or 'por' (on behalf of)?
Ricky
Please could you explain the following:
Los chicos estaban sentados en el borde de la piscina. correct
Los chicos estaban sentando en el borde de la piscina. not correct
The boys were sitting on the edge of the pool.
I am pretty sure that I have been taught to use the gerund rather than than the past participle in this kind of an example.
Many thanks (Mainland Spain)
I notice from the examples that hacerse seems to be used (with few exceptions) when the change is under your control or voluntary. This is logical because you are "making yourself" change.
And quedarse means "keep", suggesting that you're stuck with the change permanently!
This seems to help me. I hope it helps other students.
¿En este ejemplo por qué la forma segunda persona singular del verbo dar se usa para el imperativo?
Here is my question in English, in case my question in Spanish is incorrect or just too awkward:
In this example, why is the 2nd person singular form of the verb, dar, used for the imperative?
On the quiz, there was the statement "El hecho de que yo quiera ir al concierto contigo no nos hace pareja." I thought hechos (facts) were expressed in the indicative?
"Ayer hice unas baleadas para mis invitados y les encantó."
Would "encantarón" be more appropriate here, since it is the (plural) baleadas that are being so much enjoyed (that are "enchanting")? Or is it implied that it is the act of making the baleadas (hice unas baleadas) that is enchanting, and therefore the singular, encantó is better here?
please, help to understand why when I am using formal question
tiene un boligrafo is correct but
tiene usted un boligrafo marked as incorrect
If I understand this right, this conditional tense can be used both for what was possible/probable in the past as well as for what could be/would be for the future?
I am used to seeing this tense in sentences such as
¿Podría llamarme mañana?
Could you call me tomorrow?/ Would you be able to call me tomorrow?
Is it because despierta is being used as an adjective here? Thank you
foggy and sunny both are adjectives, the why is it hay niebla and esta soleado?
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