I had wondered whether Spanish 'hay' and French 'il y a' were derived the same way - a combination of third person singular from the verb 'to have' ('ha' and 'a') and 'y'.
Is that completely wrong?
Thanks
Tom
I had wondered whether Spanish 'hay' and French 'il y a' were derived the same way - a combination of third person singular from the verb 'to have' ('ha' and 'a') and 'y'.
Is that completely wrong?
Thanks
Tom
If I remember from way back when I studied both languages, I think that's correct. The "y" as a place indicator dropped out of Spanish.
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