Spanish language Q&A Forum

may i check if both situations mean the same thing?

I will speak to her when she gets home.

because i do not know when will she get home so i will use subjunctive.

How about if i DO know when she will get home and i am referring to the future time when she gets home, say maybe 9pm, is this still using subjunctive? although i do know the time, we are speaking of a non general situation that is happening in the future. Does this trigger the subjunctive too?

Thanks

Pitting your last two points against each other, should this be "Y email?" or "E email?"

"Esta debe ser roja para tener amor, blanca para llamar a LA paz, azul para buena salud y negra para atraer EL lujo".  I consistently get this wrong. I either add a definite article or miss it out. Are there any rules for this?

Hi

Could the above sentence be written without 'sobre'?  As it would then be similar to the English sentence.  If not what difference does sobre make to the meaning of the sentence?

Best regards,

Colin

Ok, I meant to ask earlier, but when I heard this same phrase for the third or fourth time while watching "¿Quién mató a Sara?" it just really started bugging me: this seems to be a great example of the impersonal ellos form (the whole premise is that he thinks she was killed but doesn't actually know who did it!) but I can't understand why that "la" is there. "La mataron" or "A Sara Mataron" I get, but how isn't it redundant to have both...? 

If anyone knows what's going on here, thanks in advance for any insight you're willing to offer! (but no spoilers please!) 😂 

Regarding this quiz question: 

Tengo estos dos pares de botas, ¿________prefieres?  

The answer is “cuáles” which means that “par” is plural, and not singular as in English. Is this correct? In general, when do we think of groups as plural?

 Also, how does this affect general usage? Do we say, “los par son bonitos”? Thanks.

Hola!

Solo un FYI, la grabación salta en la tercera frase.

Gracias

Hi,

I am also a little confused by this lesson.  I accept that they must be used as written but as the former modifies an adjective and the other a verb, how does this relate to the sentence above?  Do they both relate in different ways to the second part of the sentence?  Also, although they have the same translation, is there any difference to a Spanish speaker?

I need to understand when to apply each so that I don't make a mistake.

Gracias y saludos,

Colin

The difference between an "event still to happen" and one that "will happen" can be determined only by the ability to predict the future. It is not a grammatical issue. So neither the indicative nor subjunctive choice is grammatically incorrect. It's a semantic difference, not a grammatical one. I've seen you make very different choices -- different from what I thought was meant. 

Hi,

The translation given for the above is 'You apologised to me'.

I thought it meant 'You asked me for forgiveness', because You were doing the asking.  Would 'apologised' not be a different word?

I know that I may translating more literally, but I am I completely wrong?

Saludos,

Colin