European consonant pronunciation guide suggestionMaybe there already is one, but a nice reference would be an explanation of the Spain-spanish pronunciations from a Latin American perspective. Because I am hearing the "th" sound in at least three different letters: c, g, and z. I sometimes hear "d" pronounced as "v".
Several letters (g, q, d, and even j) are often pronounced with a rough sound that has no equivalent letter sound, more like a middle eastern language sound.
Others (heard in the listening exercise following this one): T pronounced as d, d as q, and z as j. It's as if the european spanish mushes different letters into one sound, and many letters are pronounced differently depending upon the word.
I would like to ask exactly the same question as Benhur
Hello! Can you please explain why these verbs in the fourth sentence (Me gustaría lavar, cortar y peinar por favor) are not in the reflexive form? Thank you!
this is 'to him' which is to me should us le not lo.
Don't bother answering, no one ever answers me here anyway
Maybe there already is one, but a nice reference would be an explanation of the Spain-spanish pronunciations from a Latin American perspective. Because I am hearing the "th" sound in at least three different letters: c, g, and z. I sometimes hear "d" pronounced as "v".
Several letters (g, q, d, and even j) are often pronounced with a rough sound that has no equivalent letter sound, more like a middle eastern language sound.
Others (heard in the listening exercise following this one): T pronounced as d, d as q, and z as j. It's as if the european spanish mushes different letters into one sound, and many letters are pronounced differently depending upon the word.
The third example above is written "Los conciertos de la calle son ruidosísimos."
If so, it seems to violate the rule of taking the masculin form and replacing the "o" with "ísimo".
If not, is it a typo?
Based on this list, is it safe to say that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, and therefore, -AR and -ER verbs do not have this possibility. If so, it might be helpful to put a note at the top of this list that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, unlike E>IE which can occur in -AR, -ER, and -IR verbs.
__________ mucho esta noche.
I answered: "He bebido"
I answered this because:
"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise."
"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...
What am I failing to understand here?
There's also this part:
"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."
So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?
For this question about recibir in the imperfect, I inserted the "personal a" but it was marked wrong. Ayudame por favor!
In his small apartment he didn't receive guests. --> En su apartamento pequeño no recibía a visitas. (recibía was correct but adding a was marked wrong)
What is the difference between camarero and camarera
Hola Inma,
Very comprehensive and has cleared up a lot of my confusion. Saludos. John
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level