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5,676 questions • 9,129 answers • 893,538 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,676 questions • 9,129 answers • 893,538 learners
Are “muy de lujo” and “muy lujoso” not synonymous and therefore interchangeable? Asking for a friend 😏!
What is the difference?
In Kwiziq, there's a lesson on -ito etc and a lesson on -illo etc. I'm living in Ecuador and have traveled around Central and South America a bit, and I've heard both groups of suffixes used in what seems to be the exact same way. I guess I'm looking for a little clarity on whether they are 100% interchangeable.
Am I correct that team -ito and team -illo mean the same thing - they make a word diminutive, softer, affectionate - and that the real difference is just in local usage? I can use either group of suffixes, and not be wrong, but one group is just more common in certain areas than the other?
My apologies if you've answered this elsewhere. I reviewed the other questions, and I did not find an answer that makes me confident that my understanding is correct.
And thanks, in advance for your help.
Is it safe to think that:
Haber tenido = sustantivo
Habiendo tenido = adverbio
Habiendo tenido ese accidente, depende de su pareja.
Haber tenido ese accidente lo hizo dependiente de su pareja.
Wouldn't it be easier to translate "No tenía más que unas monedas en el bolsillo." to "He didn't have more than a few coins in his pocket." rather than "He only had a few coins in his pocket."? This type of translation would work for the "más que +noun" instances.
Can "No tienes más que decirlo y yo estaré allí para ayudarte." be translated to "You don't have to say anything more than it/that and I will be there to help you." rather than "You just have to say it and I will be there to help you."?
Based on this list, is it safe to say that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, and therefore, -AR and -ER verbs do not have this possibility. If so, it might be helpful to put a note at the top of this list that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, unlike E>IE which can occur in -AR, -ER, and -IR verbs.
Hola…..¿por qué se usa el imperfecto de subjuntivo con una oración que empiece con “No sabía que_________”. No entiendo el “trigger” en este caso.
¡Hola!
Here's a space for you to discuss the changes in the Kwiziq Newsletter of May 1st.
Let us know what you like, dislike, anything you'd like to see more of, do you like the new "palabra curiosa" space? Share it here with your fellow Kwizzers!
As this discussion relates to a specific Newsletter, note that it will have a limited running time and close by May 8th 2025.
¡Gracias!
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Why is "lo mío" singular? Why not "los míos son" or "lo mío es"?
The English similarity although we don't use it anymore, they are growing up on us without us realizing or she is not eating on me and I am worried.
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