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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,960 questions • 9,756 answers • 996,773 learners
Why does one sentence use con terminación en., And the next sentence use que acaban en for the same English construction?
I see here that querer does not have an accent for the first person preterito indefinido: quise, whereas some verbs have one, like compré - is there a rule that I can apply to distinguish it, or is it just because querer is irregular?
Thanks
Sonia, De verdad. No podías guardártelo para ti
"Sería tan romántico que mas las diera" is a B2 construction.
there is another chapter where "Having done something" with the action as subject or direct object of a sentence using El Infinitivo Compuesto (= haber + participle)
How does it differ from using infinitive?
Fumar es malo para la salud
Haber fumado es malo para la salud
if I were to guess, I am guessing that using el infinitive compuesto is that, the action was indeed being carried out where as using infinitive is just a general statement. the person we are warning regarding smoking is bad, did not smoke.
Whereas if the person indeed smoke, we will say haber fumado es malo para la salud
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
My CLAVE dictionary implies that the phrase "consist of ..." [in today's translation exercise "Thriving ecosystems in Costa Rica"] may be translated by "constar de ..." as well as by "consistir en ..." - but it implies that there is a subtle difference between them. If so, this might be worth mentioning?
I am a bit confused here. Below are two responses which I got wrong. In both cases the "hint" is that it is a "future idea". So why should one of them be indicative and the other subjunctive? "Even if you don't want to" I put in the subjunctive because there seemed to be a bit of doubt, and that was marked wrong. "Even if you do extra hours" I put in the indicative because it seemed that that was definitely going to happen.
I think this is a very complicated and nuanced piece of grammar so I would appreciate some help, thank you.
PS I tried to include a screenshot of my answers but the system wouldn't let me.
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
Re my question below is les incorrect because ver is intransitive?
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