Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello!  Thank you for this wonderfully clear explanation of the accidental se.  I noticed that in several examples that are translated with a possessive adjective in English, a definite article is used in Spanish.  For example, "Se me rompió EL reloj ayer" is translated as "MY watch broke (accidentally) yesterday.  I have several questions about this.  First, would it be presumed in this sentence that it is MY watch?  Second, would it ever be correct to say "Se me rompió MI reloj ayer"?  What if I wanted to say that I broke my favorite watch (e.g., modifying reloj): Would it still be "Se me rompió el reloj favorito"?  Finally, if I wanted to specify that it was someone else's watch:  "Se me rompió el reloj de mi mejor amiga"?  Thank you in advance for clarifying.  This is a challenging topic for me!

The English similarity although we don't use it anymore, they are growing up on us without us realizing or she is not eating on me and I am worried.

Hi,

The translation given for the above is 'You apologised to me'.

I thought it meant 'You asked me for forgiveness', because You were doing the asking.  Would 'apologised' not be a different word?

I know that I may translating more literally, but I am I completely wrong?

Saludos,

Colin

Not exactly sure what "These adjectives are always invariable in masculine and feminine singular" is trying to tell me. Does this imply that -e ending nationalities can be either masculine or feminine?

Hi

Could the above sentence be written without 'sobre'?  As it would then be similar to the English sentence.  If not what difference does sobre make to the meaning of the sentence?

Best regards,

Colin

I think you have put the wrong text in the above,

We are going to go to Carla's

Is "hay" only for present tense? 

Are there different words for "there were" and "there will be"?

Hello!  Can you please explain why these verbs in the fourth sentence (Me gustaría lavar, cortar y peinar por favor) are not in the reflexive form?  Thank you!