Separated double object pronouns HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
Re my question below is les incorrect because ver is intransitive?
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
For anyone struggling with how and when to use Sentir and Sentirse, just read both Silvia's and Inma's replies to Garry's question. It took me a good while to use the correct verb too.
The explanations given here by Silvia and Inma are invaluable and so comprehensive.
We are so lucky to have such a great team of teachers!
this is 'to him' which is to me should us le not lo.
Don't bother answering, no one ever answers me here anyway
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
Why is it "las puertas y ventanas" and not "las puertas y las ventanas"? Usually Spanish seems to have two definite articles where English has only one.
"Sería tan romántico que mas las diera" is a B2 construction.
HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
When does the -o ending in the third person singular of the pretérito indefinido get a tilde en when does it not? P.e. "he spoke" = habló, but "she said" = dijo. Has it something to do with regular and irregular verbs?
I think there might be a correction to the English is this sentence:
I've just seen the singer who they gave a prize last year.
I believe it should say:
I've just seen the singer to whom they gave a prize last year.
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