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5,957 questions • 9,740 answers • 992,915 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,957 questions • 9,740 answers • 992,915 learners
There Will be and There is going to be are identical in meaning. Is that the same for habrá and va a haber. Google translate doesn’t seem to make a distinction.
From the above lesson it is not fully clear when one would use "no solo...sino" and when one would use "no solo...sino que". Is the rule similar to the one mentioned in this lesson: Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) whereby "If we need a different conjugated verb in the second clause after sino, then we need to add "que" after sino."?
No leiste ningún libro de italiano.
For "any Italian books" why is this not "nigunos libros italianos"?
Los adultos compran este calendario para los niños porque tienen chocolates y son deliciosos.
Tienen is plural while calendario is singular. So who have the chocolates? The adults or the children? Neither makes sense.
This sentence is funny in a way because you could read as the children have chocolates and the children are delicious. I guess the adults buy the calendar to lull the children, to capture them and eat them. Yum, delicious children:-)
In English, "to hear" is a passive act to the person. It happens to them, whether they wanted it to or not. "To listen" is an active effort by the person. "If one listens well, he will hear it." The Spanish dictionary says that "oir" is to hear. However, "escuchar" can mean "to listen" or "to hear". Is that correct?
"La escuché cantando" could mean "I listened to her singing" or "I heard her singing". ??
Is that right?
Thanks
Can they be used synonymously? What is the difference in meaning and use between the two?
Hola,
Not sure I’m entirely clear on this usage...
I get the ‘to what’... but I was surprised that it also means ‘at what’ in the mini-quiz (thinking that was more naturally ‘en qué’). Don’t think I saw this referenced in the lesson?
Is that the extent of it? - use ‘a qué’ for:
- To what
- At what
Gracias,
I got this sentence in a quiz
No puedo ver _____ en la muchedumbre.
The answer was "a Paula y Cristina".
I notice that sometimes you put an a before every name, like "a Paula y a Cristina". Is this optional, or are there certain circumstances when the a is required before each person?
When translating to a passive sentence, why is it "se come paella" and not "se comen paella", when people is a plural noun?
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