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6,054 questions • 9,905 answers • 1,027,091 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,054 questions • 9,905 answers • 1,027,091 learners
doesn't that mean: they? not are YOU coming to dinner?
In the introduction to this lesson, you say the meaning is similar to using "haber plus infinitive". I think you mean haber plus past participle i.e. the perfect tense
I had the question pasted below, but how is it that it can be both vosotros and os in the same sentence? And why isn't the gusta plural?
Thanks!
A vosotros no ________ este documental, ¿verdad?You [plural] don't like this documentary, do you?
Answer: os gusta
Why do you say "votar por" and not "para", since the person you vote for benefits?
'I feel a little cold' or 'I'm a little cold' or 'I'm a little bit cold'.
would I say:
'Tengo un poco frío' or
'Tengo un poco de frío'
I was thinking 'Tengo un poco de frío' is more like saying:
'I'm a little bit cold'
Is this a correct way to think about it?
or is it better to always use, 'un poco de' in this context?
Sorry, I get so hung up on details.
why does dar conjugate the preterite as an "ir"verb
In the quiz question: "Todos los estudiantes son estadounidenses ________. All the students are from the United States except us." the question refuses any answer with "nosotras". Surely "nosotras" should be as equally possible as "nosotros" in this response, or am I misunderstanding?
When translating to a passive sentence, why is it "se come paella" and not "se comen paella", when people is a plural noun?
I learned naranja as the fruit and anaranjado/a as the color. Obviously language can be used differently throughout the Spanish-speaking communities! Is that the case here?
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