Spanish language Q&A Forum

If it is a polite request, why use the tú form rather than the usted form?

I do find this confusing even though I understand the grammatical logic behind it. But my (temporary) solution is to get away from thinking in English and adopt the Spanish viewpoint. So I think “I please you” (te gusto); “you please me” (me gustas); “he pleases them” (les gusta) etc. , rather than "you fancy me"......

I believe it’s better as a general principle to try to think in the target language, rather than translate from your own language into the target language.

Hope this helps.

¡Hola!

Could you please provide me with Spanish equivalents for modal structures of probabality:

-Must/might/may/could + be (+ V-ing);

past probabality:

-Must have/might have/may have/could have + past participle (+ V-ing);

and their negative forms

Thanks in advance

Regards,

Alexander

Hello:

in the exercise at: https://spanish.kwiziq.com/my-languages/spanish/exercises/judge/314/481235?response=57969&page=8

sentence: My mother uses her mobile phone to make calls and send texts 

Spanish: Mi madre usa el teléfono móvil para hacer llamadas o mandar mensajes.

The exercise says: "and", but the translation is: "o" 

i.e.: and send texts.

Kwizbot: o enviar mensajes. 

You: y enviar texto

Why is the translation "o" 9meaning "or" 0 instead of "y" meaning and as per the text?

Is there an error here, if so what lesson would answer this?

Thank you, Nicole

Hi, if "tuyo" means "yours" by itself, why do you still need "el" in front of it in this sentence:

Mi coche corre tan rápidamente como el tuyo.

¿es posibe usa detestar en lugar de odiar?

I have encountered real-life examples using both indicative and subjunctive with "una vez que..." and I'm just hoping to confirm or correct my understanding of how this works, please...? For examples, In an article about animals' senses of smell, in discussing the properties of volatile scent compounds I read "Una vez que se vaporiza, puede extenderse rápidamente por el aire" and in a tutorial for making tortillas mexicanas I found "Una vez que sepas cómo hacer tortillas..." I'm thinking that the first takes the indicative because its describing something factual understood to happen routinely, whereas the second takes the subjunctive because it's referring to something that from the writer's point of view hasn't happened yet or is more a hypothetical idea. Is this an accurate way to understand this or am I missing something...? If this is accurate, does it generally hold true with other, similar constructions like those discussed in this lesson? Thanks in advance, as I appreciate the help!

En este frase, no entiendo por que es "Si usted hubiera venido antes, yo le atendería" y no "Si usted hubiera venido antes, yo le habria atendido".  No entiendo por que la tradución en ingles es I would have served you y no I would serve you.... Help!