Aunque +subjunctive vs indicativeCould someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
Why is it ‘hacer la lumbre en la cocina', then later ‘hacer el fuego'? Is it because, the second time, we are more focused on actually getting a fire going, and the first time we're thinking about the type of fire?
In your example of the
El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo
You're using the verb haber ie
Hubiera hubiese etc
So what's the preterito pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo?
I thought that was
hubiera hubiese
I thought el imperfecto de subjuntivo was the past subjuntivo ie
Tuviera
Fuera
Pusiera
Etc
Could someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
In the question "Yo no loraría aunque me [dejar]", with the hint that it is a hypothetical situation, it's clear that the subjunctive should be used. But why is it wrong to use the present subjunctive "dejes", and is only the imperfect "dejaras" correct?
What is the difference between this and the sentence Voy a salir después aunque llueva mucho. which is in the lesson "Aunque + el presente vs el presente de subjunctivo"?
Is it because of the conditional?
Can they be used synonymously? What is the difference in meaning and use between the two?
My answer was "está"The correct answer was "hace"
In the above question, I think both answers should be considered correct:está (in this case frío is an adjective)and hace (in this case frío would be a noun)
Why am I wrong?
There was a question in the test where the correct answer was:
´Las islas canarias SON en el oceáno atlántio´
Why is it ´SON´ and not ´ESTÁN´?
Hola todos
I have been told that it is very common to use 'quedar' instead of 'estar' to indicate where a place is, for instance 'Mi casa queda cerca del parque.'
I have read quedar used in this way, and have seen it in some dictionaries. However, I don't think I've ever heard anyone say it to me, which is odd as I must have used sentences where it might come up hundreds of times on the many occasions I've been navigating neighbourhoods during visits to Spain. Could it be more common in Latin American Spanish?
Can you clarify?
Saludos
When translating to a passive sentence, why is it "se come paella" and not "se comen paella", when people is a plural noun?
Just a comment. I think this subject is difficult without making the English incorrect. It becomes much more understandable when the translation is made using correct English. Some examples:
¿A quién le enviaste la carta?
Who did you send the letter to?
The English should be: To whom did you send the letter?
¿Para quién has comprado esas flores tan bonitas?
Who have you bought such pretty flowers for?
The English should be: For whom have you bought such pretty flowers?
¿Con quiénes vais de vacaciones?
Who are you going on holiday with?
The English should be: With whom are you going on holiday?
¿Por quién harías una locura?
Who would you do something crazy for?
The English should be: For whom would you do something crazy?
This does not include all the examples, but it is enough to see the problem.
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