Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,721 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,592 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,721 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,592 learners
Hola,
How does the meaning change when es que is preceded by si? For example:
Si es que no podía ni hablar.
I had to look up and remind myself about the two possible derivatives of "bendecir" - i.e. bendecido [participle] and bendito [adjective]. Clarification was necessary because I remembered that the future tense of "bendecir" is 'regular' - i.e. "bendeciré" - [unlike decir > diré].
Another 'peculiar' change which might be worth mentioning in this lesson is the way in which "pudrir" becomes "podrido" when forming its past participle.
Of possible interest too, is the pair "corrompido" [participle] as opposed to "corrupto" [adjective]; (we never see "corroto").
When a feminine singular noun starts with a vowel (or vowel sound) do we still use 'la' (or 'una'), or is there a rule similar to that in English for a / an?
know whether tu or usted is required. Could it not be either, depending on the formality, which is not stated?
I have encountered real-life examples using both indicative and subjunctive with "una vez que..." and I'm just hoping to confirm or correct my understanding of how this works, please...? For examples, In an article about animals' senses of smell, in discussing the properties of volatile scent compounds I read "Una vez que se vaporiza, puede extenderse rápidamente por el aire" and in a tutorial for making tortillas mexicanas I found "Una vez que sepas cómo hacer tortillas..." I'm thinking that the first takes the indicative because its describing something factual understood to happen routinely, whereas the second takes the subjunctive because it's referring to something that from the writer's point of view hasn't happened yet or is more a hypothetical idea. Is this an accurate way to understand this or am I missing something...? If this is accurate, does it generally hold true with other, similar constructions like those discussed in this lesson? Thanks in advance, as I appreciate the help!
Es imposible ________ todo a la primera. It is impossible to understand everything at the first time.hi - I saw this question and thought ‘ es impossible’ would trigger the subjunctive, but the answer was the infinitive. If I click ‘explain this’ it takes me to the subjunctive page, which has ‘es imposible que’ - is the ‘que’ the only thing making it subjunctive then?
When translating to a passive sentence, why is it "se come paella" and not "se comen paella", when people is a plural noun?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level