Aunque +subjunctive vs indicativeCould someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
"La" is only used as the feminine for a direct object, correct? So in this example from the lesson the first "her" (se) is the indirect object of "dar" but the the second "her" is a direct object of "ver"?
Se lo daré cuando la vea.
I will give it to her when I see her.
If the second "her" were an indirect object, it would be "le", right? For example, is this correct?
Se lo daré cuando le hable.
I will give it to her when I talk to her.
Thank you!
i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
In your example of the
El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo
You're using the verb haber ie
Hubiera hubiese etc
So what's the preterito pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo?
I thought that was
hubiera hubiese
I thought el imperfecto de subjuntivo was the past subjuntivo ie
Tuviera
Fuera
Pusiera
Etc
Can they be used synonymously? What is the difference in meaning and use between the two?
In the sentence: my girlfriend says that you will be worth it. Why would you use valdrás, instead of valdrá la pena? You are not valuing it, you are just worth it.
¿Qué es la diferencia entre las palabras rincón y esquina?
What is the difference between Tengo catarro and tengo resfriado pls?
When translating to a passive sentence, why is it "se come paella" and not "se comen paella", when people is a plural noun?
Could someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
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