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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,925 questions • 9,697 answers • 982,868 learners
There was a question in the test where the correct answer was:
´Las islas canarias SON en el oceáno atlántio´
Why is it ´SON´ and not ´ESTÁN´?
"La" is only used as the feminine for a direct object, correct? So in this example from the lesson the first "her" (se) is the indirect object of "dar" but the the second "her" is a direct object of "ver"?
Se lo daré cuando la vea.
I will give it to her when I see her.
If the second "her" were an indirect object, it would be "le", right? For example, is this correct?
Se lo daré cuando le hable.
I will give it to her when I talk to her.
Thank you!
From the above lesson it is not fully clear when one would use "no solo...sino" and when one would use "no solo...sino que". Is the rule similar to the one mentioned in this lesson: Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) whereby "If we need a different conjugated verb in the second clause after sino, then we need to add "que" after sino."?
Can we get a lesson on when to use which word? They seem to all be very similar in describing how long something takes.
Is 'piso' used to refer to a flat only in Spain?
The question
________ a vuestra pregunta.I am answering your question.HINT: Conjugate "contestar" in El Presente Continuo.
I understand the answer Estoy contestando buy why is the preposition "a" included in the original sentence. "Vuestra pregunta" is not a person. Estoy contestando a vuestra amiga
For example,
Tengo que ir al colegio.
Instead of using "voy", ir was used. Why is that?
Thanks.
Hola,
I don't know if a reply occurred in some other area, but I was wondering if you could give a bit more info
to help me understand this. I still have trouble with this particular example.
My earlier question was following your reply for : "Why the imperfect is used and not the preterit in:"puesto que era mi cumpleaños "
(I sent this same request on my Questions and Answers page, and didn't see the reply there,)
Muchas gracias, Nicole
You wrote: "With verbs that imply movement we can use all the forms:", with example ¿Adónde vas Manuel?
Does than mean that "Adonde vas Manuel" and "donde vas Manuel" are correct? The examples only have the forms adónde and dónde
In the question "Yo no loraría aunque me [dejar]", with the hint that it is a hypothetical situation, it's clear that the subjunctive should be used. But why is it wrong to use the present subjunctive "dejes", and is only the imperfect "dejaras" correct?
What is the difference between this and the sentence Voy a salir después aunque llueva mucho. which is in the lesson "Aunque + el presente vs el presente de subjunctivo"?
Is it because of the conditional?
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