Spanish language Q&A Forum

I’m confused between hace and hacía + time frame. Do you have a deep dive on this? Thanks

Hola,

¿Qué es la diferencia de significado entre "Alguien no tiene que hacer algo" y "Alguien no tiene por qué hacer algo"? Y ¿por qué no se use "por que", sino "por qué" con el acento?

Gracias!  (I hope that all made sense!) 

The question

________ a vuestra pregunta.I am answering your question.HINT: Conjugate "contestar" in El Presente Continuo.

I understand the answer Estoy contestando buy why is the preposition "a" included in the original sentence. "Vuestra pregunta" is not a person. Estoy contestando a vuestra amiga

So if it's a female trabajador or inversor then it's changed to la trabajadora and inversora ? Then following to Las and unas inversoras?

Thanks you

It is possible, I believe, to form a [sort of?] passive with 'estar' - is it? … Do you have an exercise on that? (perhaps highlighting comparisons with the 'ser' passive).

In the question, How would you say "There was an accident on the motorway" the nearest correct answer I can find is "Había un accidente...", and there isn't the option for preterite 'hubo'. However, because accidents are one time actions with clear beginnings and ends, it's more appropriate to use the preterite tense in this case. In fact, this particular sentence is a very common one to use when explaining the differences between the two conjugations and especially to illustrate why imperfect simply doesn't work here. 

Gerunds are nouns formed from verbs.  The "ing" words you are translating here are called present participles.  Gerunds & present participles have the same form in English, but they are different in Spanish.  Eg. I like dancing=me gusta bailar. I am dancing= Estoy bailando. 

t 

There was a sentence in the lesson: 

Dime cuál te gusta más. 

Tell me which one you like the most. 

Wouldn't this translate to

Tell me which one you like more. ? 

How would you say the correct sentences in Spanish to translate more and the most?

Also, why do speakers of Spanish have a difficult time when learning the comparative and superlative forms in English? It's like they don't realize they exist in Spanish too.

¡Hola! Leí una página que indica que "a menos de que" es un dequeísmo y no es correcto (aunque si lo uso, se entiende). ¿Es así? ¿O hay una diferencia entre los dos que depende en lo que viene antes y después? Y sea lo que sea, eso se aplica a otros tal como "con tal de que," "antes de que," y "después de que?"