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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,042 questions • 9,883 answers • 1,024,475 learners
If gustar is followed by a verb, you always use gusta, right? Example: Me gusta nadar con los delfines. VS Me gustan los delfines.
Am I understanding that correctly?
Hola todos
I have been told that it is very common to use 'quedar' instead of 'estar' to indicate where a place is, for instance 'Mi casa queda cerca del parque.'
I have read quedar used in this way, and have seen it in some dictionaries. However, I don't think I've ever heard anyone say it to me, which is odd as I must have used sentences where it might come up hundreds of times on the many occasions I've been navigating neighbourhoods during visits to Spain. Could it be more common in Latin American Spanish?
Can you clarify?
Saludos
What is the difference between tan and tanto?
Can they be used interchangeably.
Why is it ‘hacer la lumbre en la cocina', then later ‘hacer el fuego'? Is it because, the second time, we are more focused on actually getting a fire going, and the first time we're thinking about the type of fire?
¿Sería el mismo decir "la clínica de libros" como "el consultorio de libros"? ¿Son sinónimos?
when would you use soler (imperfect) + verb rather than the actual imperfect of the verb? For example why in the first example above wouldnt you say
yo cantaba
instead of Yo solía cantar
I would have thought that A had similar structure to B, as in action#1 was interrupted by action#2:
A: Te ________ hasta que me aburrí y me fui.
I was waiting for you until I got bored and left
B: Ella estaba lavándose el pelo cuando él llegó.
She was washing her hair when he arrived.
But the answer to A was “estuve esperando” not “estaba esperando.”
Does it mean that in B the woman didn’t stop washing her hair even the man arrived, but in A the waiting totally completed?
Can we get a lesson on when to use which word? They seem to all be very similar in describing how long something takes.
From the above lesson it is not fully clear when one would use "no solo...sino" and when one would use "no solo...sino que". Is the rule similar to the one mentioned in this lesson: Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) whereby "If we need a different conjugated verb in the second clause after sino, then we need to add "que" after sino."?
Happy birthday to you. Why is ti used and not te? I can’t find a lesson on the use of ti instead of te. For instance para ti
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