Spanish language Q&A Forum

Do we use' el que'  with subjunctive ?

Can we eliminate the use of "vosotros" in the Spanish - or choose a non Spain (American) version?

Hi, I had a question about the translation for "What should I do?". In this exercise, it said the correct translation was "¿Qué hago?", but wouldn't "¿Qué debo hacer?" also be correct?

I have a question regarding the following excerpt:

"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:

Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)

No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"

My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.

Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?

Many thanks,

Stu

In the sentence:

La bruja le maldice todos los años. (The witch curses him every year)

I expected it to read "lo maldice" to say "to curse him" where "him" would be the direct object. Why is it le?

Hola Shui,

I'm a bit confused with the future "podrá". I would expected "podría" or "pudiera". Can you please explain? Is there a lesson about hypothetical clauses?

Muchas gracias

Ελισάβετ

Ella se mudó allí hace dos meses.   Is this correct?  The lesson says we can't use the preterite with hace + time.

The lesson doesn't seem to differentiate between these two words and the 2 quiz questions just require the same single word answer.  Is there anywhere that explains the differences in more detail please?