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5,748 questions • 9,372 answers • 929,136 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,748 questions • 9,372 answers • 929,136 learners
I put "y nos bronceamos en tumbonas." Is this wrong?
Hi Inma,
Tanto el café como el té me sientan mal. Why sentir in the subjunctive?
Thanks a lot, Shirley.
Hello,
In the following sentence I expected está, as "but it is very cold". Have I got this wrong?
"El agua es clara, pero esta muy fría."
Thanks
Hola Inma,
I think the spelling of the indefinido of creer should be "creyó."
Saludos
John
This is an interesting construction. is there a lesson that deals with it?
It would seem to me that 'a su madre' should be after ve. could K say ... ve a su madre llegar?
One of the quiz examples translates They achieved the objectives for the year. using el preterito indefinido.
My first thought would be that this sentence would fall under the "in the same time period" rule and end up being el preterito perfecto (rule is at this link) link When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past (Perfecto vs Indefinido)
I am curious how I can tell (other than the hint given in the exercise) that this should be indefinido.
Thanks.
After reading this chapter and the comments I think there is an English usage that is very similar and helps to explain it a little more clearly. We have the structure "to have got(ten)...done." (instead of I have done 3 things). Like in Spanish, it usually means that you've done several things toward your goal and you have gotten them out of the way.
e.g.
I've painted three rooms. He pintado tres habitaciones.
I've gotten three rooms painted, or I got three rooms painted. Tengo pintadas tres habitaciones.
You can apply that formula to all the other examples. Helped me to understand this much better.
Same thing with:
The book has (gotten) me interested.
El libro me tiene interesado.
Please correct the English in these (and other) exercises. Native speakers of English would not say something is "different to". We say, it is "different from".
E.g., English is different from Spanish in that we use the apostrophe to show the possessive
In one quiz there was a sentence: Hace calor. Saldré al jardin un rato. Voy a salir sounds more natural and is what I hear more often from South Americans. Is the use of the future tense more common in Spain?
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