Spanish language Q&A Forum

¿Porque se dice ambos, el presente perfecto (en otros textos) y el pretérito perfecto? Esto me confunde  mucho... ¡Muchas gracias!

What am I missing? The lesson says that all three options are interchangeable, but the test result says that I got it almost correct when I chose "podía haber reducido" instead of "podría haber reducido."

After reading this chapter and the comments I think there is an English usage that is very similar and helps to explain it a little more clearly.  We have the structure "to have got(ten)...done."  (instead of I have done 3 things). Like in Spanish, it usually means that you've done several things toward your goal and you have gotten them out of the way.

e.g. 

I've painted three rooms.  He pintado tres habitaciones.

I've gotten three rooms painted, or I got three rooms painted.  Tengo pintadas tres habitaciones.

You can apply that formula to all the other examples.  Helped me to understand this much better.

Same thing with:

The book has (gotten) me interested.

El libro me tiene interesado. 

The question asked for the vosotros form, which I'm not even studying, and then the answer was for ustedes. 

Really enjoyed this!

I see that you have a full list of -iar verbs that will carry a stress mark in conjugation, and I wonder whether you have a similar list for -uar verbs. thanks

Here's the -iar verb list:

 https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/theme/1433458