Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi,

Does the section headed "Bear in mind that their regular superlative forms can also be used" mean that there are two ways to say "The youngest of my brothers is called Juan:

    El menor de mis hermanos se llama Juan.

and

   El más menor de mis hermanos se llama Juan.

Thanks

In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.

Why do we say "pasear al perro" instead of "pasear el perro". Why is the "al" used?

One of my answers is “No me apetece un bocadillo ni un burrito”.

According to the corrector, this answer is wrong.

I do not understand because in the explanations, there is a note which reads as follows:

“We sometimes omit the first “ni” and only use the “ni” in the second element of the sentence with a verb in negative”

Why use the English translation there is or are,  when hay literally means to have? I would rather think of haber means to have in English. Its too confusing to use there is or there are for translating a Spanish verb that actually means to have. Thank you!