In the quiz I just did, the question was: “¡Qué ________ tiene ese hombre!” and the answer was manazas. Is there a reason that Mano with an “o” ending becomes Manazas and not Manazos? Is it simply because Mano is feminine even though it ends with an “o”?
Exactly Linda, "mano", although it looks masculine (-o) it is actually feminine: la mano, una mano, las manos, therefore "manazas".
Sign in to submit your answer
Don't have an account yet? Join today
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard