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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,798 questions • 9,486 answers • 949,367 learners
Since the preposition “a” as a personal “a” wouldn’t “les” also be a correct?
Hola Inma,
Can you clear something up for me?The question was given in this format "Está bien que vosotros ________ todas las noches."
It seems like an impersonal statement but isn't the usual structure Ser+Adjetivo+Que ..... hence: "Es bueno que leáis todas las noches?"
Saludos. John
In the examples of "¿Quién prepara la fiesta a Sofía?" and "Nosotros les preparamos la cena a nuestros invitados."
Why use 'a' instead of 'para' (for) or 'por' (on behalf of)?
Ricky
Why do we say "pasear al perro" instead of "pasear el perro". Why is the "al" used?
Hi - In your topic on El Condicional Simple, the description reads as follows : "El Condicional Simple expresses hypothetical actions that would or might happen in the past and in the future. It is also used to express wishes, to give advice and suggestions or to invite and ask in a polite way."
How does one differentiate between this description and the use of El Futuro Simple for the use in prediction, probability and speculation? Seems quite confusing and overlapping.
Though most of the English translations here use the future tense, as an American English native speaker it sounds stilted to me. I would normally say, for example, "I hope you come out with us tonight", "I hope they're very happy in their marriage.", and "My brother and I hope that you have lots of luck with the job." To me, this form, which is our very subtle subjunctive present tense, is a more natural translation from the Spanish present subjunctive than the English translations in future tense here.
I am not able to see the text. I can only play? How can I see the text to read?
Is there a reason why "and you can see advertising" translates as "es posible encontrar publicidad." Would "y [se] puede ver publicidad be acceptable?
I want to make sure I understand the lesson correctly--so continuar is never used with an infinitive, as it is in English? It is only correct to use it with a gerund?
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