Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,984 questions • 9,781 answers • 1,002,767 learners
Getting that for you now...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,984 questions • 9,781 answers • 1,002,767 learners
Hi,
I'm learning Spanish to keep up with my family (mixed origins from spain, latin america, south america, etc.) and I've noticed that I don't quite understand when the people I'm talking to prefer that I use formal or informal.
Are there any general guidelines or standards as for when one is more appropriate? Like if it's someone who is your senior or based on how close you are to each other? Or is this maybe not as big a deal these days as it might have been in the past?
Thanks, Dawn.
¡Hola!
Let's have a look at the examples:
1)
- Sorry, I couldn't come yesterday, I was a bit busy
- You couldn't have come anyway, roads were blocked because of the snowfall
2)
- I saw Maria yesterday
- You can't have seen her. She left for Bahamas three days ago
How can I express these ideas in Spanish by means of the verb poder and perfect infinitive?
Regards,
Alexander
Instead of just adding "Me llamo", I wrote "me llamo Juan" inadvertently giving the answer "Me llamo Juan Juan". This is accidental! Yet Kwiziq marks it incorrect! Almost certainly, this would never occur in a practical situation.
Also when using my tablet, I sometimes miss out a question by accident. Kwiziq should prompt that all the questions have not been answered. This is also accidental! Yet Kwiziq marks it incorrect!
Hola,
In a Spanish show I've been watching, I often see the Object verb subject construction. What I would like to know is how prevalent this construction is in everyday Spanish. Are there situations where it is more commonly used?
Example.
Nos gustaría que sus cosas las tuvieran los niños.
Nos gustaría que los niños las tuvieran sus cosas.
*Sus cosas = Las cosas de sus hijas
No me gustan los tatuajes y por eso no tengo ________.
Shouldn't it be "ningunos" because tatuajes is masculine and plural?
Hello,
in this sentence :
... ir al psicólogo no sería mala idea. (That thing about going to a psycologist wouldn't be a bad idea.)why isn't it : "... ir al psicólogo no sería una mala idea." ?
thank you !
In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.
A quiz question asks “vas a venir al cine mañana?”. In English it seems more common to say “are you going to go the movies tomorrow?” (or simply “are you going to the movies tomorrow?”) Any insights into this use of venir instead of ir?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level