Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,018 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,757 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,018 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,757 learners
In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.
In your example on the use of tanto...como, one of your sentence has left me uncertain about the translation. Tanto cuando son pequeños como majores, los hijos siempre preocupan a los padres. The English translation in your example is: Whether they are young or grown-up, children are always a worry for their parents. The use of the personal "a" before the word "los padres" suggests that the children worry about the parents, except that the verb should have been "se preocupan"..If it was intended to mean that the parents always worry about the children whether young or grown-up, in my opinion, the words "los hijos" and "los padres" should be interchanged, with the verb se preocupan. Otherwise " están ocupados" should have been used instead of "preocupan" and or used before los padres. Please advise.
In English, we also say that a book is "heavy reading" when the subject matter is academic or complicated and detailed. A subtle difference between heavy reading and difficult to read. A book might be difficult to read if it is badly written. Not quite the same as "heavy reading"
Does the same subtle difference exist in Spanish?
It seems that the llevar construction from B1 Spanish is more flexible?
For example if I want to say "He had been working with his dad for a few months", then I could write:
Él llevó trabajando con su papá por unos meses.
Por unos meses él llevó trabajando con su papá.
Él llevó trabajando por unos meses con su papá.
Far more forgiving grammatically than the hacía constructions.
How does one determine whether to use "sido" or "estado" with haber in such instances as "I have been a good person..." or "I have been seen with ..." or "I have not been trying hard to..."?
Also, with regard to "he, has, ha....etc.", is this conjugation referred to as the present perfect indicative, the past perfect indicative (preterito perfecto), or both?
In the examples above the translation is in present continuous, but in Spanish the sentence is just using present simple. Is there a difference in meaning between:
En dos dias me mudo a Mexico.
En dos dias estoy mudandome a Mexico.
Gracias!
Hay and hace both seem to use nouns but they don't seem to be interchangeable. I'm puzzled as to why, for example, it's hace calor but hay humedad.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level