Spanish language Q&A Forum

I learned that you can use the futuro simple and the condicional simple to express something which might happen in the future.

Is the difference that the futuro simple only can be used with a sentence which states the probability of the action?

E.g.:

Tú ________ chocolate sin parar

Comerías

Pero:

Probablemente, tú comerás chocolate sin parar.

If my assumption is correct, what is the difference to:

Probablemente, tú comerías chocolate sin parar.

Hello,

It seems to me this is more of a literal translation? 

Does it meant rather: "You went the wrong way."?

Or: "You walked on the wrong side of the road." ?

Thank you for your consideration.

Nicole

Why does Mexico DF mean Mexico City ?

Hello!  I thought the hint for "to sign up for" was "inscribirse a."  The correct response was "inscribirse en."  Are both forms acceptable?  Thank you!

In the example sentence. "Nos felicitaron porque habíamos aprobado todo con una nota alta," why is haber in the imperfect? I think of passing or failing something as something that happens in a moment -- you receive your grade and either it is pass or fail -- not as an ongoing state of being. Could one say "hubimos aprobado" or would that be wrong? 

What difference would it make if I used esté instead of estuviera?

Why "olviden sus problemas" instead of "se olviden de sus problemas" or "olviden de sus problemas"?

"las personas que van al club son latinas". Las "n" al fin de "van" y "son" suena como "vang" y "song". estan correcto pronunciacion?

I wonder if there is a discussion of the pronunciation of these two words. Depending on the speaker, they sound the same to me. I have noticed in some accents in the north, there's a slight "l" sound in the ll, and even my late great uncle (from the north of Spain) had explained to me that this is a thing, but also he explained this to me a long, long ago and I just want to know if I'm hearing things correctly or if my brain's making it up. ¡Gracias!