Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,079 questions • 9,957 answers • 1,037,477 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,079 questions • 9,957 answers • 1,037,477 learners
Good morning.
Where in the lesson does it say that the vosotros form of "sonreir" in the imperative has an accent. Would you direct me to other exceptions of the rule.
Thank you.
Texto muy bueno y fácil para principiantes. La misma imagen hermosa con los cines de verano existe en mi país, Grecia.
Can we get an option to remove hints from the tests?
For example with the following hint:
HINT: Conjugate “ser” in El Pretérito Imperfecto
There is really no point to the question, because I can easily conjugate the verb if you tell me this...the difficulty is in knowing when to use the imperfect vs the preterite.
I would also like an option to get rid of the multiple choice answers for the one or two word answers. Sometimes you can eliminate three options just based on context without actually understand the grammar that is supposedly being tested.
Right now it is too easy to get the right answer when you don't really know the topic very well.
i have two questions for this one first why there is an a after venir is it coz its
equivalent to be able to ?
second why five is las not la five is a number singular thx in advance for the support gracias
hi room and experts
Please clarify why 'tener + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object, whereas this rule does not apply in 'haber + participio cases'
For example - Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)
He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)
Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.
Hola todos
It's a new year and I'm determined to master the subjunctive this year. So, I just got this question in a Kwiziq test
"Conjugate the vosotros form of "hablar" in El Presente Subjuntivo (Don´t talk to me like that) : No me ___ así."
Now, I did get the correct answer by selecting 'habléis'. However, strictly speaking, doesn't this answer represent the negative imperative rather than the present subjunctive? Of course both give the same answer and I understand there are crossovers in conjugations between the two tenses. But can the two have the same meaning in this case?
Is anyone else just chipping away at the Spanish lessons here hoping that one day they will understand enough to have the courage to talk to someone in Spanish? I'm level B1 in the lessons, but probably A2 when it comes to writing, A1 when it comes to listening and A0 when it comes to converations!
I fully understand I won't ever be fluent unless I talk with Spanish people, but I'm level C2 at making up reasons why today just isn't the day.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level