Eso vs lo
Hola! I just answered a quiz question that looked like this:
Pásame ________ que está ahí a tu lado por favor. Pass me that [thing] which there next to you please.
(HINT: Use the correct word for "that" acting as a direct object)
With "lo" (the correct answer was "eso"). And "lo" still seems correct to me without context. IE "Pass me that which is next to you please." or something like that. I think the import of the lesson is that, in cases where "the thing" has been previously mentioned, "eso" or "ello" is more correct.
Here are my questions, assuming I've got the idea right about the eso/ello usage above ;-) :
1. Should the question provide the context ? IE "HINT: Use the correct pronoun for something mentioned previously acting as a direct object."
2. Either way, isn't the question a little weird? I mean, if we already talked about the thing, why would I also specify its location? I mean, wouldn't I just say "Pass me that thing (we talked about), please" ?
Thanks!
Alan
Hola! I just answered a quiz question that looked like this:
Pásame ________ que está ahí a tu lado por favor.
Pass me that [thing] which there next to you please.
(HINT: Use the correct word for "that" acting as a direct object)
With "lo" (the correct answer was "eso"). And "lo" still seems correct to me without context. IE "Pass me that which is next to you please." or something like that. I think the import of the lesson is that, in cases where "the thing" has been previously mentioned, "eso" or "ello" is more correct.
Here are my questions, assuming I've got the idea right about the eso/ello usage above ;-) :
1. Should the question provide the context ? IE "HINT: Use the correct pronoun for something mentioned previously acting as a direct object."
2. Either way, isn't the question a little weird? I mean, if we already talked about the thing, why would I also specify its location? I mean, wouldn't I just say "Pass me that thing (we talked about), please" ?
Thanks!
Alan
1)hi, could you tell when is molestar used as gustar verb and not, 2)Also in the sentence, the heat annoys me , the spanish translation for this would be , Me molesta el calor,but wont ``the heat`` =lo(dop) So the sentence should be , ``me lo molesta``, but why isnt it so on the translators
3)the structure when molestar is used as ``gustar`` is , iop+molestar+subject.Is this an exception? R there nay other verbs like this,
Hi, why is terminarse (vs terminar) used here: “no quería que se terminara”, (I didn’t want it to end). Thanks a lot,
Shirley.
According to the kwiz, there are 2 correct answers to the question:
haya ganado ( my answer)
ganara ( imperfect subjunctive)
The page on the subjunctive does not address using these subjunctives interchangeably. I learned that when the subjunctive trigger is in the present tense ( no está seguro) and the event being considered is in the past ( won the competition), the present perfect subjunctive is called for. Do you have a lesson the the distinction?
The lesson says:
We always use the singular form of verb gustar when followed by actions!
For example: Me gustan bailar y cantar.
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I think I understand the answer, but the example seems confusing since in this case gustar is being used with multiple verbs
[A comment, not really a question]: It is interesting that you are using the infinitive construction here after "recomendar": "...nos han recomendado poner suelo de madera"; (instead, I put: "han recomendado que pongamos suelo de madera"). My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin - admittedly an oldish, 2004 edition) discusses the well known rule: "Use the subjunctive when there is a change of subject between the two portions of the sentence" - and it lists verbs which are exceptions. 'Recomendar' is not actually given as a clear-cut exception, but the book says that this verb is in a transitional state - where the infinitive construction is "slowly creeping into" written Spanish. It adds that it would be better for non-Spaniards to stick with the subjunctive in these particular circumstances, just to be sure..... I am sure you do have a lesson on this specific point; I look forward to seeing what it says about various verbs.
Please, help me understand the difference:
Me alegro de que hayas viajado a diferentes países.
I am pleased that you have travelled to different countries.
To me the english deffinition appears to be equal to the present perfect "has viajado". Is it that there is doubt that you have actually travelled to different countries? or....is there something else that needs to be read into the use of subjunctive here.
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