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6,029 questions • 9,850 answers • 1,016,893 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,029 questions • 9,850 answers • 1,016,893 learners
I don't understand why the English translations of the historical present are not in the English historical present. For example, "Venezuelan President Hugo Chavez dies in 2013." would be perfectly acceptable in a historical context. To use the past tense in the English examples is just confusing, since the point of the lesson is that the same tense exists in Spanish as well.
Is anyone else just chipping away at the Spanish lessons here hoping that one day they will understand enough to have the courage to talk to someone in Spanish? I'm level B1 in the lessons, but probably A2 when it comes to writing, A1 when it comes to listening and A0 when it comes to converations!
I fully understand I won't ever be fluent unless I talk with Spanish people, but I'm level C2 at making up reasons why today just isn't the day.
I have the worst time remembering which one is what. I get ese/esa and esto/esta mixed up all the time. Any suggestions on how to remember them?
Aquello/aquella isn't so hard to remember since it's so different
I am having difficulty understanding the difference in terminology between "impersonal se" and "passive reflexive se" and in particular the difference in their translation into English. ¿Puedes ayudarme?
I would like to know how can I go to next lesson after I finish answering the questions on this page.
Thank you so much!
For the question "No hay muchas casas ________ el monte." meaning, there aren't many houses on the mountain, why wouldn't sobre work? If I wanted to say "there aren't many books on the table", wouldn't sobre be acceptable in that instance?
Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.
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