Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the quiz I just took, I was supposed to translate "that famous film". I said "Esa película famosa" and was marked wrong. The answer was "aquella película famosa".

Given that the usage is somewhat subjective, and depends on how close the person feels to the object, shouldn't "esa" also be correct?

Edited to add: looks like I can't delete the question. I just went back to my quiz results, and it looks like there's a hint that I missed, that the speaker was feeling distant from the film. So that explains it.

Why was the English translation of the Spanish question misleading?.. It should have been written as.... The lady waited for the doctor for 40 minutes...

In the lesson you give examples for estar deseando in imperfect, but not for tener ganas de. I feel pretty sure I could use tener ganas de in imperfect as well, but neither seems to fit well with preterite. 

Could you say more about how these two are used with other moods and tenses and what limitations, if any, exist.

EDIT: Sorry, I see you answered part of this in an earlier reply. However, could you indicate any other limitations that might apply. I wonder about subjunctive too.

¡Hola!

Could you tell me if it is indicativo or subjuntivo that  follows the expression:

¿No es cierto que...?

Regards,

Alexander

Hello, I use several sources to learn Spanish, and the other ones suggest using Estar for relationships with husband and wife, is there any reason why they would be incorrect?  Thanks

Being in a specific location "They"  (Implicit in venden),  could be the shop owners or staff and it would not be impersonal.  I know it fits the format of the lesson but in this situation, I would have thought "se venden" would have been a more impersonal expression with no possibiloity of ambiguity.