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5,744 questions • 9,364 answers • 926,212 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,744 questions • 9,364 answers • 926,212 learners
Hola todos
It's a new year and I'm determined to master the subjunctive this year. So, I just got this question in a Kwiziq test
"Conjugate the vosotros form of "hablar" in El Presente Subjuntivo (Don´t talk to me like that) : No me ___ así."
Now, I did get the correct answer by selecting 'habléis'. However, strictly speaking, doesn't this answer represent the negative imperative rather than the present subjunctive? Of course both give the same answer and I understand there are crossovers in conjugations between the two tenses. But can the two have the same meaning in this case?
Sorry-
Forgot to include 'dieron' in the translation, but question remains the same.
¡Hola!
Could you tell me why it is subjuntivo that follows the expression:
"No dudo de que..."?
The full extract is:
"Antes de dormir pásabamos un buen rato por el taller del Belga, un anciano pavoroso que apareció en Aracataca después de la primers guerra mundial, y no dudo de que fuera belga por el recuerdo que tengo de sus acento aturdido y sus nostalgias de navegante" ("VIVIR PARA CONTARLA" by Gabriel García Márquez)
Doesn't "No dudo de que..." imply certainty?
Regards,
Alexander
In the test question: ¿Quién es ________ de tus amigos? (Who is the most generous of your friends?)
I incorrectly assumed that because "de tus amigos" doesn't specify the gender of "Quien es" in Spanish, that "lo" would be appropriate rather than "el" (correct answer). Because only the response can reveal the gender e.g. - "Carla es la más generosa de mis amigos" o "Jorge es el más generoso de mis amigos". In other words, why is "el" correct in this case even if the "quién es" might turn out to be female? (I did notice that the hint was "generous = generoso" but (falsely?) assumed it was being generic rather than specifying un amigo masculino).
Can you please clarify?
Thank you
Hello! I'm not understanding why these cardinal points sometimes have a "r" and some have a "d" in the name (as bolded). Can you explain this further? ie: El sureste as south-east makes sense (literally south+east), but what is sudeste??
El sureste/sudeste = south-east
El suroeste/sudoeste = south-west
El noreste/nordeste = north-east
El noroeste = north-west
A great article which I thoroughly enjoyed and will watch and read a few more times. Why was the word "desgustar" used as: "bebidas para desgustar"? Is it an entendre doble somehow? Maybe disfrutar?
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