Spanish language Q&A Forum

It is indeed a great bonus that Inma speaks so clearly - Many thanks ! … Even after living in Spain for nearly 20 years, it is still often a struggle for me to understand people when they speak, particularly here in Andalusia... I suppose that means that you should be providing me with listening exercises [with a transcript] which feature 'rapid' conversation?

Vivo en España - aquí usamos la palabra ‘unos’ o algunos..para mi este lección es confuso 

Please explain why "Me gusta la de rojo" instead of el.

Los de manana seran mas fresco instead of Las......

Thank you

In this lesson, peninsular Spanish is specified (however I am in the US and speak Spanish with Cubans, Mexicans, etc., so not only is this sort of new to me, it's not clear how useful it is). From what I've heard & read, there are many differences in the Americas in how the simple and compound past tenses are used (e.g., https://www.scribd.com/document/148697440/El-sistema-verbal-del-espanol-de-America-De-la-temporalidad-a-la-aspectualidad-Quesada-Pacheco-Espanol-actual-75-2001). If we include both peninsular and American (and other world) Spanish speakers, this is quite a range of variants. English speakers have a parallel set of past tenses in went/has gone. Obviously this is a false friend when compared to a specific dialect of Spanish such as the peninsular dialect (although I wonder how perfectly consistent this is across the peninsula). But is the English parallel any more “false” than the Ecuadorian, Peruvian, or Mexican one, relative to the peninsular one? How would a Spaniard respond if an American Spanish speaker consistently used the false English parallel to these tenses, compared to their response to an Ecuadorian, Peruvian, or Mexican speaker who consistently used their own native variant?

Thanks,

Greg Shenaut

Why are numbers written with the feminine article when telling time "es la una y media", but written with the masculine article when writing the date, "mi cumpleaños es el uno/primero de enero"?

I would like to ak why is the accent in the audio on the second syllable?

In the initial table of conjugation, I feel that ‘estudiar’ is a poor choice of example for the ‘ar’ verbs. Because this particular verb happens to have an ‘i’ before the infinitive ending, it blurs the differentiation between the conjugation of the ‘ar’ verbs and the ‘er’ and ‘ir’ verbs.  It would be instantly clearer if a verb such as ‘hablar’ were chosen as the example.