Spanish language Q&A Forum

For this lesson, would it be correct to say that you generally conjugate the verbs ending in "ar" to "aba" (e.g. hablar becomes hablaba) and that you conjugate verbs ending in "er" and "ir" to "ía" (e.g. soler becomes solía)?

"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."

So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?

Hello, I use several sources to learn Spanish, and the other ones suggest using Estar for relationships with husband and wife, is there any reason why they would be incorrect?  Thanks

The lesson says:

We always use the singular form of verb gustar when followed by actions!

For example: Me gustan bailar y cantar.

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I think I understand the answer, but the example seems confusing since in this case gustar is being used with multiple verbs

Being in a specific location "They"  (Implicit in venden),  could be the shop owners or staff and it would not be impersonal.  I know it fits the format of the lesson but in this situation, I would have thought "se venden" would have been a more impersonal expression with no possibiloity of ambiguity.

    Pass me that [thing] which there next to you please.

    (HINT: Use the correct word for "that" acting as a direct object)

With "lo" (the correct answer was "eso").   And "lo" still seems correct to me without context.  IE "Pass me that which is next to you please." or something like that.   I think the import of the lesson is that, in cases where "the thing" has been previously mentioned, "eso" or "ello" is more correct. 

  
Here are my questions, assuming I've got the idea right about the eso/ello usage above ;-) :

  
1. Should the question provide the context ?   IE "HINT: Use the correct pronoun for something mentioned previously acting as a direct object." 

  
2.  Either way, isn't the question a little weird?   I mean, if we already talked about the thing, why would I also specify its location?   I mean, wouldn't I just say "Pass me that thing (we talked about), please" ?  
Thanks!

  Alan

A great article which I thoroughly enjoyed and will watch and read a few more times. Why was the word "desgustar" used as: "bebidas para desgustar"? Is it an entendre doble somehow? Maybe disfrutar?

Como / cuando / donde / quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish

I find it confusing. there is another note on this to indicate subjunctive with wherever, whoever etc.

is both the same thing with different ways of expressing or it is not the same thing?

call us whenever you get there

in this note, it says = llámame lleguen cuando lleguen

based on another notes, can i say ' llámame cuando lleguen' ?

are both the same?

The answer is ‘los’ but since the construction is ‘ver a’ and the prepositions are already used for the names, I don’t see why it is not the indirect object pronoun ‘les’ required. 

"we were studing at the university of Salamanca during the 90'

While translating the verb study in spanish , I think we will use preterite indefinido (pretertio perfecto simple) because of time frame (during the 90) instead of preterite imperfecto. 

Please guide me on this.