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5,794 questions • 9,477 answers • 947,541 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,794 questions • 9,477 answers • 947,541 learners
A great article which I thoroughly enjoyed and will watch and read a few more times. Why was the word "desgustar" used as: "bebidas para desgustar"? Is it an entendre doble somehow? Maybe disfrutar?
Being in a specific location "They" (Implicit in venden), could be the shop owners or staff and it would not be impersonal. I know it fits the format of the lesson but in this situation, I would have thought "se venden" would have been a more impersonal expression with no possibiloity of ambiguity.
In terms of usage, can había considered to be the the past tense of hay? Había =There was' vs. Hay = 'there is'?
"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."
So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?
I am having a small issue. The summary box that should show the list of conjugations is empty. I have been seeing this issue recently with the future tense. Can you help with this?
"we were studing at the university of Salamanca during the 90'
While translating the verb study in spanish , I think we will use preterite indefinido (pretertio perfecto simple) because of time frame (during the 90) instead of preterite imperfecto.
Please guide me on this.
Hello, I use several sources to learn Spanish, and the other ones suggest using Estar for relationships with husband and wife, is there any reason why they would be incorrect? Thanks
The lesson says:
We always use the singular form of verb gustar when followed by actions!
For example: Me gustan bailar y cantar.
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I think I understand the answer, but the example seems confusing since in this case gustar is being used with multiple verbs
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