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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,923 questions • 9,676 answers • 977,102 learners
"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."
So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?
"Cuál es" works just fine in Mexico to ask "what is". Just because you haven't introduced it in the lesson yet shouldn't make it wrong. The problem with learning formal speech is that nobody talks like this in every day Life. People don't speak proper English in America, and they don't in Latin America either. The same with "me llamó" v "llamó" In Mexico they don't always say me llamó José, just llamó José. Both are right, they know what I'm saying. I want to learn both proper and common speech. Just learning the proper leads to a lot of confusion when you get to where you're going. Nobody talks completely proper, in fact English is so infused with Spanish, they have many made up spanglish words. When you go into a local neighborhood if you speak proper they don't know what you're saying. Really! No one says como se llama usted, me llamo José. They just stare at you like you're a snob.
Lo siento por la novela
Hola, tengos dudas en la acentuación de las palabras arriba. Según lo que he estudiado "compráoslos" no sería correcto. La tilde debería ser en o: "cómpraoslos".
También en otras palabras tengo dudas de la accentuación.
No estoy segura. ¿Si esto (lo que esta escrito en los ejercicios)es correcto por favor digame cómo?
¿Cuál es la diferencia entre "tener el pelo claro" y "ser rubio"?
Hello! I'm not understanding why these cardinal points sometimes have a "r" and some have a "d" in the name (as bolded). Can you explain this further? ie: El sureste as south-east makes sense (literally south+east), but what is sudeste??
El sureste/sudeste = south-east
El suroeste/sudoeste = south-west
El noreste/nordeste = north-east
El noroeste = north-west
Newbie here: I’ve always been told that Spanish accent is usually on the penultimate vowel, and only the exceptions need an explicit tilde mark.
However, there are conjugations, like actuéis where the accent mark is on the penultimate vowel. I would have thought that the accent wasn’t needed anymore. Any place I could go to with a fuller explanation?
Thanks.
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