Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is the imperfect, "tenía que" used instead of maybe the subjunctive "tenga que" or the conditional "tendría que"? In the story it's an action she hasn't yet done, no?

When might one use "siempre que" in place of "con tal de que" to mean "as long as." I found the question a bit confusing because it appears that there are two correct answers. Thank you so much, Inma.

Why is it incorrect to say "espero que no tomen muchas fotos....."? Or, why is it only correct to use sacar in the subjunctive?

Would it be incorrect to say, "No me gustan los tatuajes y por eso no tengo nada" instead of ninguno?

¡Qué ________ sois vosotras dos! How aggressive you two are!(HINT: "peleón" = masculine for aggressive)… why is the answer peleonas?

I got confused with the explanation as you highlighted that ninguno  is an ind pronoun which cant be used with a noun but gave no examples of the use of the ninguno whereas the actual test question 20 is all about the correct indefinite adjective ie ninguna playa which I got wrong. As a beginner one would naturally be forgiven thinking that there is a family of masculine and feminine indefinite adjectives but this appears wrong as the "apparent masc version is ninguno  BUT it is an indefinte pronoun so would one look at a text grammar book as I could not resolve this/ Why mix up the tip on the same page??

The answer appears to treat estar as a verb like gustar.  It doesn´t appear as such in your list.  What am I missing?

Is there a general rule in Spanish about when the definite article must be used and when it can be omitted? Eg why do azúcar, sodio, carbohidratos and lácteos need the definite article but not pescado, marisco, granos and huevos? 

Why is “looking for solutions for their diseases” translated in the singular “su enfermedad” instead of the plural “sus enfermedades”? Thank you.