What about "por _______"?I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:
La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)
It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."
Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?
It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...
Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?
En verdad no hay cartas horizontales, sino hay cartas colocadas horizontalmente. me suena mejor usar el adverbio que un adjetivos.
So can i use que and cual interchangeably eg
Mis vecinos, quienes tienen tres hijos, son muy ruidosos.
Mis vecinos, que tienen tres hijos, son muy ruidosos.
1) Why do you say “No tienen casa” and not “No tienen un casa”? 2) Is it “algunas” and not algunos because it agrees with personas? 3) Could you also say, La gente buscó ayuda de iglesias… as well as en iglesias? This is the first time I did one of these exercises and I found it really helpful!
Why is the imperfect, "tenía que" used instead of maybe the subjunctive "tenga que" or the conditional "tendría que"? In the story it's an action she hasn't yet done, no?
I don’t understand the use of quedarse in this sentence: “me quedé gratamente sorprendido”. It means I was pleasantly surprised. Why not use a form of estar in the preterite to express surprise? Unless this is a phrase used or has another meaning? I thought quedarse meant to stay. Thanks!
Good morning,
Would you explain why it's "yo" here and not "mí", which I thought followed "para"?
¡Muchas gracias!
I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:
La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)
It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."
Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?
It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...
Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?
It seems Juntos can either be placed directly within the verbal phrase, almost, like an adverb:
ir + juntos + a
or
follow the phrase, ir al cine juntos.
I noticed a few mistakes here in this lesson. In some areas, for the "tu", "ellas/ellos", and "nosotros/nosotras" forms of "acaber" there are double "ba" syllables. For example, there's "acababas" instead of "acabas", "acababan" instead of "acaban", and "acababamos" instead of "acabamos". I've double checked elsewhere to verify the correct spellings of these forms and nowhere else did I find the double "ba" syllables.
Hello,
Still a bit confused on passive SE, and have a couple questions: (1) Do "no fault", "accidental" and "passive" SE all refer to the same thing? And (2) Would the correct Spanish translation for "Yesterday I fixed his computer, and he has already broken it" be "Ayer le arreglé la computadora (el ordenador) y ya se lo/le ha roto”. If correct, should I use “lo” (for “it”, the computer) or “le” as indirect object for “to him” (?). Thank you for your input and clarification.
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