Spanish language Q&A Forum

1) Why do you say “No tienen casa” and not “No tienen un casa”?   2) Is it “algunas” and not algunos because it agrees with personas?  3) Could you also say, La gente buscó ayuda de iglesias… as well as en iglesias?   This is the first time I did one of these exercises and I found it really helpful!

Why is this sentence: Yo he llegado pronto a trabajar esta tarde? Translated as “I arrived early to work this morning” and not “I have arrived early to work this morning”? The present perfect tense includes the use of have correct?

Why is yo me sumerjo los manos wrong here ?  

When using de lo más with estar, specifically, is it preferred or more common to have the adjective agree with the subject, as distinct from when using ser for example? I noticed the specific example sentences using estar both have adjective agreement with the subjects. So I wasn't sure if this was supposed to be indicative or if it's just a quirk of having examples that were chosen at random, and I can't seem to find an answer anywhere else...

This was listed as B2, but required knowledge from C1 areas: Using dicho, dicha, dichos, dichas to say this/these (formal) and Using Spanish relatives el que, la que, los que, las que = the one/ones who/that (relative pronouns)