Spanish language Q&A Forum

Por qué hay una coma entre y otra coma después de ?

In the reading, the sentence "A que no te lo imaginabas?" is translated as "Can you imagine?".  It seems like that translation is missing some nuance.  After reading through the corresponding lesson, it seems like more accurate translation would be "I bet you wouldn't have imagined it!".  Would this be accurate, or am I missing something?

F

Hola, what does ya mean in this sentence. Muchas gracias, Shirley. 

But correct answer is "...and can be unstable" (the weather') y puede 

SER variable / cambiante / inestable.  (I put puede estar variable)

Dear Inma,

What is the reason for having the part "De tanto/tan poco que/como + indicative" instead of "De tanto que/como + indicative" with "De tan poco que/como + indicative" being covered in the previous part "De tan+ adjective/adverb + que/como + indicative"?

Best regards, Janusz

I would translate this as "Take any dish."

Coge cualquier plato. 

I would translate this exactly the same way.

Under what circumstances would one choose to use either one?

Are these words indeterminate and/or invariable and what are the meanings or other examples of indeterminate and invariable?

If I wrote:

¿Puede venir cualquiera a mi fiesta? 

Can anyone come to my party?  Would that be incorrect?

I am having difficulty understanding the difference in terminology between "impersonal se" and "passive reflexive se" and in particular the difference in their translation into English. ¿Puedes ayudarme?

I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood.  But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood.  And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers.  My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?