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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,015 questions • 9,828 answers • 1,013,555 learners
Como ves, mamá sabía que si ellos comían de ese fruto, pensarían que ya no la necesitaban.
This was listed as B2, but required knowledge from C1 areas: Using dicho, dicha, dichos, dichas to say this/these (formal) and Using Spanish relatives el que, la que, los que, las que = the one/ones who/that (relative pronouns)
I am a bit frustrated with this lesson. I guess my question is this: with my limited (A1) knowledge of Spanish, how am I supposed to know "that sometimes the feminine and masculine forms are the same" when repeatedly the test gives adjectives I do not (yet) know in Spanish?
For example, placid. I do not KNOW how to say placid in Spanish, thus how can I know if I should use the feminine adjective form or simply add mente? The assumption of adjective knowledge doesn't work unless, as is sometimes done in the test, you GIVE the adjective form in the test question; example: Los coches son rápidos: van rápidamente. In this example test question it is easy to understand rápidos (masculine form) will change to the feminine because I can SEE rápidos! The frustrates me to get wrong when it seems to be testing me more on knowing a large range of adjectives in Spanish more than the specific assignment of adding the "ly" form! I don't see my scores getting better based on the lesson given.
This is a helpful list. Would you be able to add the infinitive forms, as you did with the table for the form "-yendo"?
Is there a general rule in Spanish about when the definite article must be used and when it can be omitted? Eg why do azúcar, sodio, carbohidratos and lácteos need the definite article but not pescado, marisco, granos and huevos?
When using de lo más with estar, specifically, is it preferred or more common to have the adjective agree with the subject, as distinct from when using ser for example? I noticed the specific example sentences using estar both have adjective agreement with the subjects. So I wasn't sure if this was supposed to be indicative or if it's just a quirk of having examples that were chosen at random, and I can't seem to find an answer anywhere else...
Fill in the blank with the doler verb that best completes each sentence: A mí _____ _______ los brazos.
Good morning,
Would you explain why it's "yo" here and not "mí", which I thought followed "para"?
¡Muchas gracias!
One of the test questions is:
"________ al colegio ha habido problemas.
Since this girl arrived at school there have been problems."
which I answered as:
"Ya que esta niña llegó",
which was marked as wrong.
Why can't I think that "Since" here has causal value, which would render my answer correct?
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