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5,721 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,677 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,721 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,677 learners
The examples all list a couple actions that are being requested or suggested. Would it be just as normal to use it when there is just a single action being requested? Like "Pones los papeles sobre la mesa" would sound as normal as a command as "Pon los papeles sobre la mesa"? As a non-native speaker, if I talked that way would people think I don't know the imperative?
why are "they are always eating chocolate" "Ellos siempre están comiendo chocolato", and not "Ellos siempre está comiendo chocolato"?
Correct answer: Lo que.
I entered: La cosa que.
I can't understand why la cosa que can't be used in this instance?
Hi and thanks for all your work. This is a good breakdown however I still remain confused when two nouns don't require - de- between them
For example in a book I'm reading " el êpico fracas de Arturo Zamora" Theres a part that that says
Consejo ciudadano. ( citizen council)
This isn't the first time two nouns are next to each other without a " De" inbetween but I don't see the difference between this and something like
La sopa de Pollo
Buenas tardes. I'm puzzled by this quiz and answer... Le olvidé = I forgot him; lo olvidé = I forgot about meeting him, ¿no?
No te me pongas chulo.
I found this on
spanishdictionary.com:
No te pongas chulo conmigo; te conozco desde que eras un bebé.Don't get cocky with me; I've known you since you were a little baby.
Muchas gracias, Shirley.
What is the difference between para la que and para el que.
Can someone please explain when we cannot use either of the two.
Gracias!
In There Will Be Blood:
Yo me bebo tu batido. ¡Me lo bebo entero!
Hi, there are two questions on the quiz that I don't understand: (1) "Esos chicles son mentolados pero ____ no tienen sabor" and (2) "Esos estudiantes van a viajar a Asia pero ________ no tienen dinero." Kwiziq is saying that the correct demonstrative pronoun in both cases is "estos." However, my understanding was that demonstrative pronouns should vary in gender with the noun they refer to, unless it isn't known or we are referring to statement, idea, or situation. In 1, the noun being referred to is "chicles," which is a masculine plural noun, so the demonstrative pronoun should be "estes," not estos, correct? With 2, I understand that we may not know the gender of the group, so we use esto. Can you explain?
I was doing one of the writing exercises and the sentence given was, "I decided to wait and see if a car passed by to call for help." I figured the translation of "passed by" would be "pasera" (past subjunctive), but the answer given was "pasaba." Why wouldn't we need to use subjunctive here since it's uncertain whether a car will actually pass by?
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