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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,996 questions • 9,797 answers • 1,008,841 learners
¿En qué año se fundó Paraguay? ¿Y quién lo fundó?
Why is costar used without a pronoun to express something people in general find difficult, while other words DO use a pronoun to express general things, as explained in the "The impersonal se in Spanish" lesson?
Lesson - The impersonal se in Spanish:
Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one
I read that the Spanish translation for "Where is the party?" is "¿Dónde es el fiesta?"
I'm curious. Is the sentence "¿Dónde está la fiesta?" incorrect? If so, why?
¡Gracias!
In There Will Be Blood:
Yo me bebo tu batido. ¡Me lo bebo entero!
en el text dice que Paraguay tiene comidas tipicas. que es eso comidas?
La vida con Roberto probablemente se volvería muy aburrida, muy rápidamente, mientras que la vida con el bohemio sería un perpetuo juego de adivinanzas. Ella debería seguir buscando.
En la frase: "What a very nerdy person I am!" ¿porque se traduce la palabra inglesa "very" con la palabra española "más"?
Wouldn't ¿Crees que has aprobado el examen? be "Do you think you have passed the exam?" I don't know the grammatical tense that applies, but on the face of it, it seems the "have" should be represented in the English.
Also, does Spanish have an equivalent of "do?" I think i read that it does not. In English it is often ommitted, so it's probably ok to not always include it in translations.
I guessed this correctly but when I clicked on the explanation of past participle examples in Spanish it did not explain why it is escrita?
Can someone please explain?
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